AWS Certified SysOps Administrator - Questions and Answers - Cont. (2)
These are AWS interview questions for experienced professionals. You will find these questions very helpful in your AWS professional role interviews. Prepare well and All the very best.
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QUESTION NO: 151
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user has created a public subnet with
CIDR 20.0.0.0/25 and a private subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.128/25. The user has launched one
instance each in the private and public subnets. Which of the below mentioned options cannot be
the correct IP address (private IP. assigned to an instance in the public or private subnet?
A. 20.0.0.255
B. 20.0.0.132
C. 20.0.0.122
D. 20.0.0.55
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user creates a subnet in VPC, he specifies the CIDR block for the subnet. In this case
the user has created a VPC with the CIDR block 20.0.0.0/24, which supports 256 IP addresses
(20.0.0.0 to 20.0.0.255.. The public subnet will have IP addresses between 20.0.0.0 - 20.0.0.127
and the private subnet will have IP addresses between 20.0.0.128 - 20.0.0.255. AWS reserves
the first four IP addresses and the last IP address in each subnet’s CIDR block. These are not
available for the user to use. Thus, the instance cannot have an IP address of 20.0.0.255
QUESTION NO: 152
A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance. The user has rebooted the instance. Which of
the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the reboot action?
A. The private and public address remains the same
B. The Elastic IP remains associated with the instance
C. The volume is preserved
D. The instance runs on a new host computer
Answer: D
Explanation:
A user can reboot an EC2 instance using the AWS console, the Amazon EC2 CLI or the
Amazon EC2 API. Rebooting an instance is equivalent to rebooting an operating system.
However, it is recommended that the user use the Amazon EC2 to reboot the instance instead of
running the operating system reboot command from the instance. The instance remains on the
same host computer and maintains its public DNS name, private IP address, and any data on its
instance store volumes. It typically takes a few minutes for the reboot to complete, but the time it
takes to reboot depends on the instance configuration.
QUESTION NO: 153
A user has setup a web application on EC2. The user is generating a log of the application
performance at every second. There are multiple entries for each second. If the user wants to
send that data to CloudWatch every minute, what should he do?
A. The user should send only the data of the 60th second as CloudWatch will map the
receive data timezone with the sent data timezone
B. It is not possible to send the custom metric to CloudWatch every minute
C. Give CloudWatch the Min, Max, Sum, and SampleCount of a number of every minute
D. Calculate the average of one minute and send the data to CloudWatch
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch aggregates statistics according to the period length that the user has
specified while getting data from CloudWatch. The user can publish as many data points as he
wants with the same or similartime stamps. CloudWatch aggregates them by the period length when
the user calls get statistics about those data points. CloudWatch records the average (sum of all
items divided by the number of items. of the values received for every 1-minute period, as well as
the number of samples, maximum value, and minimum value for the same time period. CloudWatch
will aggregate all the data which have time stamps within a one-minute period.
QUESTION NO: 154
An AWS root account owner is trying to create a policy to access RDS. Which of the below
mentioned statements is true with respect to the above information?
A. Create a policy which allows the users to access RDS and apply it to the RDS instances
B. The user cannot access the RDS database if he is not assigned the correct IAM policy
C. The root account owner should create a policy for the IAM user and give him access to the
RDS services
D. The policy should be created for the user and provide access for RDS
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. If the account owner wants to create a
policy for RDS, the owner has to create an IAM user and define the policy which entitles the
IAM user with various RDS services such as Launch Instance, Manage security group, Manage
parameter group etc.
QUESTION NO: 155
A user is using a small MySQL RDS DB. The user is experiencing high latency due to the Multi
AZ feature.Which of the below mentioned options may not help the user in this situation?
A. Schedule the automated back up in non-working hours
B. Use a large or higher size instance
C. Use PIOPS
D. Take a snapshot from standby Replica
Answer: D
Explanation:
An RDS DB instance which has enabled Multi AZ deployments may experience increased write
and commit latency compared to a Single AZ deployment, due to synchronous data replication.
The user may also face changes in latency if deployment fails over to the standby replica. For
production workloads, AWS recommends the user to use provisioned IOPS and DB instance
classes (m1.large and larger. as they are optimized for provisioned IOPS to give a fast, and
consistent performance. With Multi AZ feature, the user can not have option to take snapshot
from replica.
QUESTION NO: 156
A user is displaying the CPU utilization, and Network in and Network out CloudWatch metrics
data of a single instance on the same graph. The graph uses one Y-axis for CPU utilization and
Network in and another Y-axis for Network out. Since Network in is too high, the CPU utilization
data is not visible clearly on graph to the user. How can the data be viewed better on the same
graph?
A. It is not possible to show multiple metrics with the different units on the same graph
B. Add a third Y-axis with the console to show all the data in proportion
C. Change the axis of Network by using the Switch command from the graph
D. Change the units of CPU utilization so it can be shown in proportion with Network
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch provides the functionality to graph the metric data generated either by the
AWS services or the custom metric to make it easier for the user to analyse. It is possible to
show the multiple metrics with different units on the same graph. If the graph is not plotted
properly due to a difference in the unit data over two metrics, the user can change the Y-axis of
one of the graph by selecting that graph and clicking on the Switch option.
QUESTION NO: 157
A user is planning to use AWS services for his web application. If the user is trying to set up his
own billing management system for AWS, how can he configure it?
A. Set up programmatic billing access. Download and parse the bill as per the requirement
B. It is not possible for the user to create his own billing management service with AWS
C. Enable the AWS CloudWatch alarm which will provide APIs to download the alarm data
D. Use AWS billing APIs to download the usage report of each service from the AWS
billing console
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS provides an option to have programmatic access to billing. Programmatic Billing Access
leverages the existing Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3. APIs. Thus, the user can
build applications that reference his billing data from a CSV (comma-separated value. file stored in
an Amazon S3 bucket. AWS will upload the bill to the bucket every few hours and the user can
download the bill CSV from the bucket, parse itand create a billing system as per the requirement.
QUESTION NO: 158
A user is planning to schedule a backup for an EBS volume. The user wants security of the
snapshot data. How can the user achieve data encryption with a snapshot?
A. Use encrypted EBS volumes so that the snapshot will be encrypted by AWS
B. While creating a snapshot select the snapshot with encryption
C. By default the snapshot is encrypted by AWS
D. Enable server side encryption for the snapshot using S3
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS EBS supports encryption of the volume. It also supports creating volumes from existing
snapshots provided the snapshots are created from encrypted volumes. The data at rest, the I/O
as well as all the snapshots of the encrypted EBS will also be encrypted. EBS encryption is based
on the AES-256 cryptographic algorithm, which is the industry standard.
QUESTION NO: 159
A user has created a public subnet with VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user
is trying to delete the subnet. What will happen in this scenario?
A. It will delete the subnet and make the EC2 instance as a part of the default subnet
B. It will not allow the user to delete the subnet until the instances are terminated
C. It will delete the subnet as well as terminate the instances
D. The subnet can never be deleted independently, but the user has to delete the VPC first
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. When an instance is
launched it will have a network interface attached with it. The user cannot delete the subnet until
he terminates the instance and deletes the network interface.
QUESTION NO: 160
A user has setup an EBS backed instance and attached 2 EBS volumes to it. The user has setup
a CloudWatch alarm on each volume for the disk data. The user has stopped the EC2 instance and
detached the EBS volumes. What will be the status of the alarms on the EBS volume?
A. OK
B. Insufficient Data
C. Alarm
D. The EBS cannot be detached until all the alarms are removed
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarm watches a single metric over a time period that the user specifies
and performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold
over a number of time periods. Alarms invoke actions only for sustained state changes. There
are three states of the alarm: OK, Alarm and Insufficient data. In this case since the EBS is
detached and inactive the state will be Insufficient.
QUESTION NO: 161
A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI. The infrastructure team
wants to create an AMI from the running instance. Which of the below mentioned credentials is not
required while creating the AMI?
A. AWS account ID
B. X.509 certificate and private key
C. AWS login ID to login to the console
D. Access key and secret access key
Answer: C
Explanation:
When the user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI and the admin
team wants to create an AMI from it, the user needs to setup the AWS AMI or the API tools first.
Once the tool is setup the user will need the following credentials:
AWS account ID;
AWS access and secret access key;
X.509 certificate with private key.
QUESTION NO: 162
A user has configured an SSL listener at ELB as well as on the back-end instances. Which of
the below mentioned statements helps the user understand ELB traffic handling with respect to the
SSL listener?
A. It is not possible to have the SSL listener both at ELB and back-end instances
B. ELB will modify headers to add requestor details
C. ELB will intercept the request to add the cookie details if sticky session is enabled
D. ELB will not modify the headers
Answer: D
Explanation:
When the user has configured Transmission Control Protocol (TCP. or Secure Sockets Layer
(SSL. for both front-end and back-end connections of the Elastic Load Balancer, the load balancer
forwards the request to the back-end instances without modifying the request headers unless the
proxy header is enabled. SSL does not support sticky sessions. If the user has enabled a proxy
protocol it adds the source and destination IP to the header.
QUESTION NO: 163
A user has created a Cloudformation stack. The stack creates AWS services, such as EC2 instances,
ELB, AutoScaling, and RDS. While creating the stack it created EC2, ELB and AutoScaling but
failed to create RDS. What will Cloudformation do in this scenario?
A. Cloudformation can never throw an error after launching a few services since it verifies all
the steps before launching.
B. It will warn the user about the error and ask the user to manually create RDS
C. Rollback all the changes and terminate all the created services
D. It will wait for the user’s input about the error and correct the mistake after the input
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS Cloudformation is an application management tool which provides application modelling,
deployment, configuration, management and related activities. The AWS Cloudformation stack is
a collection of AWS resources which are created and managed as a single unit when AWS
CloudFormation instantiates a template. If any of the services fails to launch, Cloudformation will
rollback all the changes and terminate or delete all the created services.
QUESTION NO: 164
A user is trying to launch an EBS backed EC2 instance under free usage. The user wants to
achieve encryption of the EBS volume. How can the user encrypt the data at rest?
A. Use AWS EBS encryption to encrypt the data at rest
B. The user cannot use EBS encryption and has to encrypt the data manually or using a
third party tool
C. The user has to select the encryption enabled flag while launching the EC2 instance
D. Encryption of volume is not available as a part of the free usage tier
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS EBS supports encryption of the volume while creating new volumes. It supports encryption
of the data at rest, the I/O as well as all the snapshots of the EBS volume. The EBS supports
encryption for the selected instance type and the newer generation instances, such as m3, c3,
cr1, r3, g2. It is not supported with a micro instance.
QUESTION NO: 165
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The user has
not launched any instance manually and is trying to delete the VPC. What will happen in this
scenario?
A. It will not allow to delete the VPC as it has subnets with route tables
B. It will not allow to delete the VPC since it has a running route instance
C. It will terminate the VPC along with all the instances launched by the wizard
D. It will not allow to delete the VPC since it has a running NAT instance
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has created a
public private subnet, the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic directly from
the Internet, whereas the instances in the private subnet cannot. If these subnets are created with
Wizard, AWS will create a NAT instance with an elastic IP. If the user is trying to delete the VPC it
will not allow as the NAT instance is still running.
QUESTION NO: 166
An organization is measuring the latency of an application every minute and storing data inside a
file in the JSON format. The organization wants to send all latency data to AWS CloudWatch.
How can the organization achieve this?
A. The user has to parse the file before uploading data to CloudWatch
B. It is not possible to upload the custom data to CloudWatch
C. The user can supply the file as an input to the CloudWatch command
D. The user can use the CloudWatch Import command to import data from the file to CloudWatch
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS CloudWatch supports the custom metrics. The user can always capture the custom data
and upload the data to CloudWatch using CLI or APIs. The user has to always include the
namespace as part of the request. If the user wants to upload the custom data from a file, he can
supply file name along with the parameter -- metric-data to command put-metric-data.
QUESTION NO: 167
A user has launched an EBS backed instance with EC2-Classic. The user stops and starts
the instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the
stop/start action?
A. The instance gets new private and public IP addresses
B. The volume is preserved
C. The Elastic IP remains associated with the instance
D. The instance may run on a anew host computer
Answer: C
Explanation:
A user can always stop/start an EBS backed EC2 instance. When the user stops the instance, it
first enters the stopping state, and then the stopped state. AWS does not charge the running cost
but charges only for the EBS storage cost. If the instance is running in EC2-Classic, it receives a
new private IP address; as the Elastic IP address (EIP. associated with the instance is no longer
associated with that instance.
QUESTION NO: 168
A user has launched an RDS postgreSQL DB with AWS. The user did not specify the maintenance
window during creation. The user has configured RDS to update the DB instance type from micro
to large. If the user wants to have it during the maintenance window, what will AWS do?
A. AWS will not allow to update the DB until the maintenance window is configured
B. AWS will select the default maintenance window if the user has not provided it
C. AWS will ask the user to specify the maintenance window during the update
D. It is not possible to change the DB size from micro to large with RDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS RDS has a compulsory maintenance window which by default is 30 minutes. If the user does
not specify the maintenance window during the creation of RDS then AWS will select a 30-minute
maintenance window randomly from an 8-hour block of time per region. In this case, Amazon RDS
assigns a 30-minute maintenance window on a randomly selected day of the week.
QUESTION NO: 169
A user has created a subnet in VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user has not
selected the option to assign the IP address while launching the instance. The user has 3 elastic
IPs and is trying to assign one of the Elastic IPs to the VPC instance from the console. The
console does not show any instance in the IP assignment screen. What is a possible reason that
the instance is unavailable in the assigned IP console?
A. The IP address may be attached to one of the instances
B. The IP address belongs to a different zone than the subnet zone
C. The user has not created an internet gateway
D. The IP addresses belong to EC2 Classic; so they cannot be assigned to VPC
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user can
create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. When the user is launching an
instance he needs toselect an option which attaches a public IP to the instance. If the user has not
selected the option to attach the public IP then it will only have a private IP when launched. If the
user wants to connect to an instance from the internet he should create an elastic IP with VPC. If
the elastic IP is a part of EC2 Classic it cannot be assigned to a VPC instance.
QUESTION NO: 170
A user has launched multiple EC2 instances for the purpose of development and testing in the
same region. The user wants to find the separate cost for the production and development
instances. How can the user find the cost distribution?
A. The user should download the activity report of the EC2 services as it has the instance ID wise
data
B. It is not possible to get the AWS cost usage data of single region instances separately
C. The user should use Cost Distribution Metadata and AWS detailed billing
D. The user should use Cost Allocation Tags and AWS billing reports
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS provides cost allocation tags to categorize and track the AWS costs. When the user
applies tags to his AWS resources (such as Amazon EC2 instances or Amazon S3 buckets.,
AWS generates a cost allocation report as a comma-separated value (CSV file. with the usage
and costs aggregated by those tags. The user can apply tags which represent business
categories (such as cost centres, application names, or instance type – Production/Dev. to
organize usage costs across multiple services.
QUESTION NO: 171
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using VPC Wizard. The user has created a
public CIDR (20.0.0.0/24) and a VPN only subnet CIDR (20.0.1.0/24) along with the hardware
VPN access to connect to the user’s data centre. Which of the below mentioned components is not
present when the VPC is setup with the wizard?
A. Main route table attached with a VPN only subnet
B. A NAT instance configured to allow the VPN subnet instances to connect with the internet
C. Custom route table attached with a public subnet
D. An internet gateway for a public subnet
Answer: B
Explanation:
The user can create subnets as per the requirement within a VPC. If the user wants to connect
VPC from his own data centre, he can setup a public and VPN only subnet which uses hardware
VPN access to connect with his data centre. When the user has configured this setup with
Wizard, it will update the main route table used with the VPN-only subnet, create a custom route
table and associate it with the public subnet. It also creates an internet gateway for the public
subnet. The wizard does not create a NAT instance by default. The user can create it manually
and attach it with a VPN only subnet.
QUESTION NO: 172
A user has created a VPC with the public subnet. The user has created a security group for
that VPC. Which of the below mentioned statements is true when a security group is created?
A. It can connect to the AWS services, such as S3 and RDS by default
B. It will have all the inbound traffic by default
C. It will have all the outbound traffic by default
D. It will by default allow traffic to the internet gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. AWS
provides two features the user can use to increase security in VPC: security groups and network
ACLs. Security groups work at the instance level while ACLs work at the subnet level. When a
user creates a security group with AWS VPC, by default it will allow all the outbound traffic but
block all inbound traffic.
QUESTION NO: 173
A user has setup an Auto Scaling group. The group has failed to launch a single instance for more
than 24 hours. What will happen to Auto Scaling in this condition?
A. Auto Scaling will keep trying to launch the instance for 72 hours
B. Auto Scaling will suspend the scaling process
C. Auto Scaling will start an instance in a separate region
D. The Auto Scaling group will be terminated automatically
Answer: B
Explanation:
If Auto Scaling is trying to launch an instance and if the launching of the instance
fails continuously, it will suspend the processes for the Auto Scaling groups since it repeatedly
failed to launch an instance. This is known as an administrative suspension. It commonly applies to
the Auto Scaling group that has no running instances which is trying to launch instances for more than
24 hours, and has not succeeded in that to do so.
QUESTION NO: 174
A user is planning to set up the Multi AZ feature of RDS. Which of the below mentioned conditions
won't take advantage of the Multi AZ feature?
A. Availability zone outage
B. A manual failover of the DB instance using Reboot with failover option
C. Region outage
D. When the user changes the DB instance’s server type
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon RDS when enabled with Multi AZ will handle failovers automatically. Thus, the user can
resume database operations as quickly as possible without administrative intervention. The primary DB
instance switches over automatically to the standby replica if any of the following conditions occur:
An Availability Zone outage
The primary DB instance fails
The DB instance's server type is changed
The DB instance is undergoing software patching
A manual failover of the DB instance was initiated using Reboot with failover
QUESTION NO: 175
An organization has configured Auto Scaling with ELB. One of the instance health check returns
the status as Impaired to Auto Scaling. What will Auto Scaling do in this scenario?
A. Perform a health check until cool down before declaring that the instance has failed
B. Terminate the instance and launch a new instance
C. Notify the user using SNS for the failed state
D. Notify ELB to stop sending traffic to the impaired instance
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Auto Scaling group determines the health state of each instance periodically by checking the
results of the Amazon EC2 instance status checks. If the instance status description shows any
other state other than “running” or the system status description shows impaired, Auto Scaling
considers the instance to be unhealthy. Thus, it terminates the instance and launches a replacement.
QUESTION NO: 176
A user is using Cloudformation to launch an EC2 instance and then configure an application after
the instance is launched. The user wants the stack creation of ELB and AutoScaling to wait until
the EC2 instance is launched and configured properly. How can the user configure this?
A. It is not possible that the stack creation will wait until one service is created and launched
B. The user can use the HoldCondition resource to wait for the creation of the other dependent
resources
C. The user can use the DependentCondition resource to hold the creation of the other
dependent resources
D. The user can use the WaitCondition resource to hold the creation of the other 1034
dependent resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS Cloudformation is an application management tool which provides application modelling,
deployment, configuration, management and related activities. AWS CloudFormation provides a
WaitCondition resource which acts as a barrier and blocks the creation of other resources until a
completion signal is received from an external source, such as a user application or management
system.
QUESTION NO: 177
An organization has configured two single availability zones. The Auto Scaling groups are
configured in separate zones. The user wants to merge the groups such that one group spans across
multiple zones. How can the user configure this?
A. Run the command as-join-auto-scaling-group to join the two groups
B. Run the command as-update-auto-scaling-group to configure one group to span across zones
and delete the other group
C. Run the command as-copy-auto-scaling-group to join the two groups
D. Run the command as-merge-auto-scaling-group to merge the groups
Answer: B
Explanation:
If the user has configured two separate single availability zone Auto Scaling groups and wants to
merge them then he should update one of the groups and delete the other one. While updating
the first group it is recommended that the user should increase the size of the minimum,
maximum and desired capacity as a summation of both the groups.
QUESTION NO: 178
An AWS account wants to be part of the consolidated billing of his organization’s payee account.
How can the owner of that account achieve this?
A. The payee account has to request AWS support to link the other accounts with his account
B. The owner of the linked account should add the payee account to his master account list
from the billing console
C. The payee account will send a request to the linked account to be a part of consolidated billing
D. The owner of the linked account requests the payee account to add his account to
consolidated billing
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS consolidated billing enables the organization to consolidate payments for multiple Amazon
Web Services (AWS. accounts within a single organization by making a single paying account.
To add a particular account (linked. to the master (payee. account, the payee account has to
request the linked account to join consolidated billing. Once the linked account accepts the
request henceforth all charges incurred by the linked account will be paid by the payee account.
QUESTION NO: 179
A sysadmin has created the below mentioned policy on an S3 bucket named cloudacademy. What
does this policy define?
"Statement": [{
"Sid": "Stmt1388811069831",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Principal": { "AWS": "*"},
"Action": [ "s3:GetObjectAcl", "s3:ListBucket"],
"Resource": [ "arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy]
}]
A. It will make the cloudacademy bucket as well as all its objects as public
B. It will allow everyone to view the ACL of the bucket
C. It will give an error as no object is defined as part of the policy while the action defines the
rule about the object
D. It will make the cloudacademy bucket as public
Answer: D
Explanation:
A sysadmin can grant permission to the S3 objects or the buckets to any user or make objects
public using the bucket policy and user policy. Both use the JSON-based access policy
language. Generally if the user is defining the ACL on the bucket, the objects in the bucket do not
inherit it and vice a versa. The bucket policy can be defined at the bucket level which allows the
objects as well as the bucket to be public with a single policy applied to that bucket. In the
sample policy the action says “S3:ListBucket” for effect Allow on Resource
arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy. This will make the cloudacademy bucket public.
"Statement": [{
"Sid": "Stmt1388811069831",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Principal": { "AWS": "*" },
"Action": [ "s3:GetObjectAcl", "s3:ListBucket"],
"Resource": [ "arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy]
}]
QUESTION NO: 180
A user has launched two EBS backed EC2 instances in the US-East-1a region. The user wants
to change the zone of one of the instances. How can the user change it?
A. The zone can only be modified using the AWS CLI
B. It is not possible to change the zone of an instance after it is launched
C. Stop one of the instances and change the availability zone
D. From the AWS EC2 console, select the Actions - > Change zones and specify the new zone
Answer: B
Explanation:
With AWS EC2, when a user is launching an instance he can select the availability zone (AZ. at
the time of launch. If the zone is not selected, AWS selects it on behalf of the user. Once the
instance is launched, the user cannot change the zone of that instance unless he creates an
AMI of that instance and launches a new instance from it.
QUESTION NO: 181
An organization (account ID 123412341234. has configured the IAM policy to allow the user
to modify his credentials. What will the below mentioned statement allow the user to perform?
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": [
"iam:AddUserToGroup",
"iam:RemoveUserFromGroup",
"iam:GetGroup"
],
"Resource": "arn:aws:iam:: 123412341234:group/TestingGroup"
}]
A. The IAM policy will throw an error due to an invalid resource name
B. The IAM policy will allow the user to subscribe to any IAM group
C. Allow the IAM user to update the membership of the group called TestingGroup
D. Allow the IAM user to delete the TestingGroup
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. If the organization (account ID
123412341234. wants their users to manage their subscription to the groups, they should create a
relevant policy for that. The below mentioned policy allows the respective IAM user to update the
membership of the group called MarketingGroup.
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": [
"iam:AddUserToGroup",
"iam:RemoveUserFromGroup",
"iam:GetGroup"
],
"Resource": "arn:aws:iam:: 123412341234:group/ TestingGroup "
}]
QUESTION NO: 182
A user has configured ELB with two EBS backed instances. The user has stopped the instances
for 1 week to save costs. The user restarts the instances after 1 week. Which of the below
mentioned statements will help the user to understand the ELB and instance registration better?
A. There is no way to register the stopped instances with ELB
B. The user cannot stop the instances if they are registered with ELB
C. If the instances have the same Elastic IP assigned after reboot they will be registered with ELB
D. The instances will automatically get registered with ELB
Answer: C
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing registers the user’s load balancer with his EC2 instance using the
associated IP address. When the instances are stopped and started back they will have a
different IP address. Thus, they will not get registered with ELB unless the user manually
registers them. If the instances are assigned the same Elastic IP after reboot they will
automatically get registered with ELB.
QUESTION NO: 183
A user is trying to connect to a running EC2 instance using SSH. However, the user gets a Host
key not found error. Which of the below mentioned options is a possible reason for rejection?
A. The user has provided the wrong user name for the OS login
B. The instance CPU is heavily loaded
C. The security group is not configured properly
D. The access key to connect to the instance is wrong
Answer: A
Explanation:
If the user is trying to connect to a Linux EC2 instance and receives the Host Key not found
error the probable reasons are: The private key pair is not right The user name to login is wrong
QUESTION NO: 184
A user has hosted an application on EC2 instances. The EC2 instances are configured with ELB
and Auto Scaling. The application server session time out is 2 hours. The user wants to configure
connection draining to ensure that all in-flight requests are supported by ELB even though the
instance is being deregistered. What time out period should the user specify for connection
draining?
A. 5 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 30 minutes
D. 2 hours
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 185
A user is using the AWS EC2. The user wants to make so that when there is an issue in the EC2
server, such as instance status failed, it should start a new instance in the user’s private cloud.
Which AWS service helps to achieve this automation?
A. AWS CloudWatch + Cloudformation
B. AWS CloudWatch + AWS AutoScaling + AWS ELB
C. AWS CloudWatch + AWS VPC
D. AWS CloudWatch + AWS SNS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon SNS can deliver notifications by SMS text message or email to the Amazon Simple
Queue Service (SQS. queues or to any HTTP endpoint. The user can configure a web service
(HTTP End point. in his data centre which receives data and launches an instance in the private
cloud. The user should configure the CloudWatch alarm to send a notification to SNS when the
“StatusCheckFailed” metric is true for the EC2 instance. The SNS topic can be configured to
send a notification to the user’s HTTP end point which launches an instance in the private cloud.
QUESTION NO: 186
A sys admin has enabled logging on ELB. Which of the below mentioned fields will not be a part of
the log file name?
A. Load Balancer IP
B. EC2 instance IP
C. S3 bucket name
D. Random string
Answer: B
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing access logs capture detailed information for all the requests made to the
load balancer. Elastic Load Balancing publishes a log file from each load balancer node at the
interval that the user has specified. The load balancer can deliver multiple logs for the same
period. Elastic Load Balancing creates log file names in the following format: “{Bucket}/{Prefix}/
AWSLogs/{AWS AccountID}/elasticloadbalancing/{Region}/{Year}/{Month}/{Day}/{AWS
Account ID}_elasticloadbalancing_{Region}_{Load Balancer Name}_{End Time}_{Load Balancer
IP}_{Random String}.log“
QUESTION NO: 187
A user has created a queue named “awsmodule” with SQS. One of the consumers of queue is
down for 3 days and then becomes available. Will that component receive message from queue?
A. Yes, since SQS by default stores message for 4 days
B. No, since SQS by default stores message for 1 day only
C. No, since SQS sends message to consumers who are available that time
D. Yes, since SQS will not delete message until it is delivered to all consumers
Answer: A
Explanation:
SQS allows the user to move data between distributed components of applications so they can
perform different tasks without losing messages or requiring each component to be always available.
Queues retain messages for a set period of time. By default, a queue retains messages for four
days. However, the user can configure a queue to retain messages for up to 14 days after the
message has been sent.
QUESTION NO: 188
An organization has setup multiple IAM users. The organization wants that each IAM user accesses
the IAM console only within the organization and not from outside. How can it achieve this?
A. Create an IAM policy with the security group and use that security group for AWS console login
B. Create an IAM policy with a condition which denies access when the IP address range is
not from the organization
C. Configure the EC2 instance security group which allows traffic only from the organization’s
IP range
D. Create an IAM policy with VPC and allow a secure gateway between the organization and
AWS Console
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. The user can add conditions as a part of
the IAM policies. The condition can be set on AWS Tags, Time, and Client IP as well as on many
other parameters. If the organization wants the user to access only from a specific IP range, they
should set an IAM policy condition which denies access when the IP is not in a certain range. E.g.
The sample policy given below denies all traffic when the IP is not in a certain range.
"Statement": [{
"Effect": "Deny",
"Action": "*",
"Resource": "*",
"Condition": {
"NotIpAddress": {
"aws:SourceIp": ["10.10.10.0/24", "20.20.30.0/24"]
}
}
}]
QUESTION NO: 189
An organization has created one IAM user and applied the below mentioned policy to the user.
What entitlements do the IAM users avail with this policy?
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": "ec2:Describe*",
"Resource": "*"
},
{
"Effect": "Allow"
"Action": [
"cloudwatch:ListMetrics",
"cloudwatch:GetMetricStatistics",
"cloudwatch:Describe*"
],
"Resource": "*"
},
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": "autoscaling:Describe*",
"Resource": "*"
}
]
}
A. The policy will allow the user to perform all read only activities on the EC2 services
B. The policy will allow the user to list all the EC2 resources except EBS
C. The policy will allow the user to perform all read and write activities on the EC2 services
D. The policy will allow the user to perform all read only activities on the EC2 services except load
Balancing
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. If an organization wants to setup read only
access to EC2 for a particular user, they should mention the action in the IAM policy which entitles
the user for Describe rights for EC2, CloudWatch, Auto Scaling and ELB. In the policy shown
below, the user will have read only access for EC2 and EBS, CloudWatch and Auto Scaling. Since
ELB is not mentioned as a part of the list, the user will not have access to ELB.
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": "ec2:Describe*",
"Resource": "*"
},
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": [
"cloudwatch:ListMetrics",
"cloudwatch:GetMetricStatistics",
"cloudwatch:Describe*"
],
"Resource": "*"
},
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": "autoscaling:Describe*",
"Resource": "*"
}
]
}
QUESTION NO: 190
A user has enabled session stickiness with ELB. The user does not want ELB to manage the cookie;
instead he wants the application to manage the cookie. What will happen when the server instance,
which is bound to a cookie, crashes?
A. The response will have a cookie but stickiness will be deleted
B. The session will not be sticky until a new cookie is inserted
C. ELB will throw an error due to cookie unavailability
D. The session will be sticky and ELB will route requests to another server as ELB keeps
replicating the Cookie
Answer: B
Explanation:
With Elastic Load Balancer, if the admin has enabled a sticky session with application controlled
stickiness, the load balancer uses a special cookie generated by the application to associate the
session with the original server which handles the request. ELB follows the lifetime of the
application-generated cookie corresponding to the cookie name specified in the ELB policy
configuration. The load balancer only inserts a new stickiness cookie if the application response
includes a new application cookie. The load balancer stickiness cookie does not update with
each request. If the application cookie is explicitly removed or expires, the session stops being
sticky until a new application cookie is issued.
QUESTION NO: 191
A user is observing the EC2 CPU utilization metric on CloudWatch. The user has observed some
interesting patterns while filtering over the 1 week period for a particular hour. The user wants to
zoom that data point to a more granular period. How can the user do that easily with CloudWatch?
A. The user can zoom a particular period by selecting that period with the mouse and
then releasing the mouse
B. The user can zoom a particular period by double clicking on that period with the mouse
C. The user can zoom a particular period by specifying the aggregation data for that period
D. The user can zoom a particular period by specifying the period in the Time Range
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 192
A user has created an Auto Scaling group with default configurations from CLI. The user wants to
setup the CloudWatch alarm on the EC2 instances, which are launched by the Auto Scaling
group. The user has setup an alarm to monitor the CPU utilization every minute. Which of the
below mentioned statements is true?
A. It will fetch the data at every minute but the four data points [corresponding to 4 minutes]
will not have value since the EC2 basic monitoring metrics are collected every five minutes
B. It will fetch the data at every minute as detailed monitoring on EC2 will be enabled by
the default launch configuration of Auto Scaling
C. The alarm creation will fail since the user has not enabled detailed monitoring on the
EC2 instances
D . The user has to first enable detailed monitoring on the EC2 instances to support alarm
monitoring at every minute
Answer: B
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. To enable detailed instance
monitoring for a new Auto Scaling group, the user does not need to take any extra steps. When
the user creates an Auto Scaling launch config using CLI, each launch configuration contains a
flag named InstanceMonitoring.Enabled. The default value of this flag is true. Thus, by default
detailed monitoring will be enabled for Auto Scaling as well as for all the instances launched by
that Auto Scaling group.
QUESTION NO: 193
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. Which of the
below mentioned statements is not true in this scenario?
A. The VPC will create a routing instance and attach it with a public subnet
B. The VPC will create two subnets 116789
C. The VPC will create one internet gateway and attach it to VPC
D. The VPC will launch one NAT instance with an elastic IP
Answer: A
Explanation:
A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has
created a public private subnet, the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic
directly from the internet, whereas the instances in the private subnet cannot. If these subnets are
created with Wizard, AWS will create a NAT instance with an elastic IP. Wizard will also create two
subnets with route tables. It will also create an internet gateway and attach it to the VPC.
QUESTION NO: 194
A user has configured ELB with a TCP listener at ELB as well as on the back-end instances. The
user wants to enable a proxy protocol to capture the source and destination IP information in the
header. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand a proxy protocol
with TCP configuration?
A. If the end user is requesting behind a proxy server then the user should not enable a proxy
protocol on ELB
B. ELB does not support a proxy protocol when it is listening on both the load balancer and the
backend instances
C. Whether the end user is requesting from a proxy server or directly, it does not make a difference
for the proxy protocol
D. If the end user is requesting behind the proxy then the user should add the “isproxy” flag
to the ELB Configuration
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user has configured Transmission Control Protocol (TCP. or Secure Sockets Layer
(SSL. for both front-end and back-end connections of the Elastic Load Balancer, the load balancer
forwards the request to the back-end instances without modifying the request headers unless the
proxy header is enabled. If the end user is requesting from a Proxy Protocol enabled proxy server,
then the ELB admin should not enable the Proxy Protocol on the load balancer. If the Proxy
Protocol is enabled on both the proxy server and the load balancer, the load balancer will add
another header to the request which already has a header from the proxy server. This duplication
may result in errors.
QUESTION NO: 195
A user has launched 5 instances in EC2-CLASSIC and attached 5 elastic IPs to the five different
instances in the US East region. The user is creating a VPC in the same region. The user wants
to assign an elastic IP to the VPC instance. How can the user achieve this?
A. The user has to request AWS to increase the number of elastic IPs associated with the account
B. AWS allows 10 EC2 Classic IPs per region ; so it will allow to allocate new Elastic IPs to the
same region
C. The AWS will not allow to create a new elastic IP in VPC; it will throw an error
D. The user can allocate a new IP address in VPC as it has a different limit than EC2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: (none)
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. A user can have 5 IP
addresses per region with EC2 Classic. The user can have 5 separate IPs with VPC in the same
region as it has a separate limit than EC2 Classic.
QUESTION NO: 196
A user has created a subnet in VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user has not
selected the option to assign the IP address while launching the instance. Which of the below
mentioned statements is true with respect to this scenario?
A. The instance will always have a public DNS attached to the instance by default
B. The user can directly attach an elastic IP to the instance
C. The instance will never launch if the public IP is not assigned
D. The user would need to create an internet gateway and then attach an elastic IP to the
instance to connect from internet
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. When the user is
launching an instance he needs to select an option which attaches a public IP to the instance. If
the user has not selected the option to attach the public IP then it will only have a private IP when
launched. The user cannot connect to the instance from the internet. If the user wants an elastic
IP to connect to the instance from the internet he should create an internet gateway and assign an
elastic IP to instance.
QUESTION NO: 197
An organization has applied the below mentioned policy on an IAM group which has selected the
IAM users. What entitlements do the IAM users avail with this policy?
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": "*",
"Resource": "*"
}
]
}
A. The policy is not created correctly. It will throw an error for wrong resource name
B. The policy is for the group. Thus, the IAM user cannot have any entitlement to this
C. It allows full access to all AWS services for the IAM users who are a part of this group
D. If this policy is applied to the EC2 resource, the users of the group will have full access to
the EC2 Resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. The IAM group allows the organization to
specify permissions for a collection of users. With the below mentioned policy, it will allow the
group full access (Admin. to all AWS services.
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": "*",
"Resource": "*"
}
]
}
QUESTION NO: 198
A user is configuring a CloudWatch alarm on RDS to receive a notification when the CPU
utilization of RDS is higher than 50%. The user has setup an alarm when there is some
iinactivity on RDS, such as RDS unavailability. How can the user configure this?
A. Setup the notification when the CPU is more than 75% on RDS
B. Setup the notification when the state is Insufficient Data
C. Setup the notification when the CPU utilization is less than 10%
D. It is not possible to setup the alarm on RDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarms watch a single metric over a time period that the user specifies and
performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold over a
number of time periods. The alarm has three states: Alarm, OK and Insufficient data. The Alarm
will change to Insufficient Data when any of the three situations arise: when the alarm has just
started, when the metric is not available or when enough data is not available for the metric to
determine the alarm state. If the user wants to find that RDS is not available, he can setup to
receive the notification when the state is in Insufficient data.
QUESTION NO: 199
George has shared an EC2 AMI created in the US East region from his AWS account with
Stefano. George copies the same AMI to the US West region. Can Stefano access the copied
AMI of George’s account from the US West region?
A. No, copy AMI does not copy the permission
B. It is not possible to share the AMI with a specific account
C. Yes, since copy AMI copies all private account sharing permissions
D. Yes, since copy AMI copies all the permissions attached with the AMI
Answer: A
Explanation:
Within EC2, when the user copies an AMI, the new AMI is fully independent of the source AMI;
there is no link to the original (source. AMI. AWS does not copy launch the permissions, userdefined
tags or the Amazon S3 bucket permissions from the source AMI to the new AMI. Thus, in
this case by default Stefano will not have access to the AMI in the US West region.
QUESTION NO: 200
A user has created a VPC with a subnet and a security group. The user has launched an instance
in that subnet and attached a public IP. The user is still unable to connect to the instance.
The internet gateway has also been created. What can be the reason for the error?
A. The internet gateway is not configured with the route table
B. The private IP is not present
C. The outbound traffic on the security group is disabled
D. The internet gateway is not configured with the security group
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. AWS
provides two features the user can use to increase security in VPC: security groups and network
ACLs. Security groups work at the instance level. When a user launches an instance and wants to
connect to an instance, he needs an internet gateway. The internet gateway should be configured
with the route table to allow traffic from the internet.
QUESTION NO: 201
A user is trying to setup a security policy for ELB. The user wants ELB to meet the cipher
supported by the client by configuring the server order preference in ELB security policy. Which of
the below mentioned preconfigured policies supports this feature?
A. ELBSecurity Policy-2014-01
B. ELBSecurity Policy-2011-08
C. ELBDefault Negotiation Policy
D. ELBSample- OpenSSLDefault Cipher Policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which
is known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and
the loadbalancer. If the load balancer is configured to support the Server Order Preference, then
load balancer gets to select the first cipher in its list that matches any one of the ciphers in
client's list. When the user verifies the preconfigured policies supported by ELB, the policy
“ELBSecurity Policy-2014-01” supports server order preference.
QUESTION NO: 202
A user has configured ELB with Auto Scaling. The user suspended the Auto Scaling AlarmNotification
(which notifies Auto Scaling for CloudWatch alarms. process for a while. What will Auto Scaling do
during this period?
A. AWS will not receive the alarms from CloudWatch
B. AWS will receive the alarms but will not execute the Auto Scaling policy
C. Auto Scaling will execute the policy but it will not launch the instances until the process is
resumed
D. It is not possible to suspend the AlarmNotification process
Answer: B
Explanation:
Auto Scaling performs various processes, such as Launch, Terminate Alarm Notification etc. The
user can also suspend individual process. The AlarmNotification process type accepts notifications
from the Amazon CloudWatch alarms that are associated with the Auto Scaling group. If the user
suspends this process type, Auto Scaling will not automatically execute the scaling policies that
would be triggered by the alarms.
QUESTION NO: 203
George has launched three EC2 instances inside the US-East-1a zone with his AWS account. Ray
has launched two EC2 instances in the US-East-1a zone with his AWS account. Which of the below
entioned statements will help George and Ray understand the availability zone (AZ. concept
better?
A. The instances of George and Ray will be running in the same data centre
B. All the instances of George and Ray can communicate over a private IP with a minimal cost
C. All the instances of George and Ray can communicate over a private IP without any cost
D. The US-East-1a region of George and Ray can be different availability zones
Answer: D
Explanation:
Each AWS region has multiple, isolated locations known as Availability Zones. To ensure that the
AWS resources are distributed across the Availability Zones for a region, AWS independently maps the
Availability Zones to identifiers for each account. In this case the Availability Zone US-East-1a
where George’s EC2 instances are running might not be the same location as the US-East-1a
zone of Ray’s EC2 instances. There is no way for the user to coordinate the Availability Zones
between accounts.
QUESTION NO: 204
A user had aggregated the CloudWatch metric data on the AMI ID. The user observed some
abnormal behaviour of the CPU utilization metric while viewing the last 2 weeks of data. The user
wants to share that data with his manager. How can the user achieve this easily with the AWS console?
A. The user can use the copy URL functionality of CloudWatch to share the exact details
B. The user can use the export data option from the CloudWatch console to export the
current data point
C. The user has to find the period and data and provide all the aggregation information to
the manager
D. The user can use the CloudWatch data copy functionality to copy the current data points
Answer: A
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch provides the functionality to graph the metric data generated either by the
AWS services or the custom metric to make it easier for the user to analyse. The console
provides the option to save the URL or bookmark it so that it can be used in the future by typing
the same URL. The Copy URL functionality is available under the console when the user selects
any metric to view.
QUESTION NO: 205
A user has setup a CloudWatch alarm on the EC2 instance for CPU utilization. The user has
setup to receive a notification on email when the CPU utilization is higher than 60%. The user is
running a virus scan on the same instance at a particular time. The user wants to avoid receiving
an email at this time. What should the user do?
A. Remove the alarm
B. Disable the alarm for a while using CLI
C. Modify the CPU utilization by removing the email alert
D. Disable the alarm for a while using the console
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarm watches a single metric over a time period that the user specifies
and performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold
over a number of time periods. When the user has setup an alarm and it is know that for some
unavoidable event the status may change to Alarm, the user can disable the alarm using the
DisableAlarmActions API or from the command line mon-disable-alarm-actions.
QUESTION NO: 206
A user has configured ELB with SSL using a security policy for secure negotiation between the
client and load balancer. Which of the below mentioned SSL protocols is not supported by the
security policy?
A. TLS 1.3
B. TLS 1.2
C. SSL 2.0
D. SSL 3.0
Answer: A
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which is
known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and
loadbalancer. Elastic Load Balancing supports the following versions of the SSL protocol:
TLS 1.2
TLS 1.1
TLS 1.0
SSL 3.0
SSL 2.0
QUESTION NO: 207
A user has created a VPC with the public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The VPC has
CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The public subnet uses CIDR 20.0.1.0/24. The user is planning to host a web server
in the public subnet (port 80. and a DB server in the private subnet (port 3306.. The user is
configuring a security group for the public subnet (WebSecGrp. and the private subnet(DBSecGrp).
Which of the below mentioned entries is required in the private subnet database security
group (DBSecGrp)?
A. Allow Inbound on port 3306 for Source Web Server Security Group (WebSecGrp.
B. Allow Inbound on port 3306 from source 20.0.0.0/16
C. Allow Outbound on port 3306 for Destination Web Server Security Group (WebSecGrp.
D. Allow Outbound on port 80 for Destination NAT Instance IP
Answer: A
Explanation:
A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has
created a public private subnet to host the web server and DB server respectively, the user should
configure that the instances in the private subnet can receive inbound traffic from the public
subnet on the DB port. Thus, configure port 3306 in Inbound with the source as the Web Server
Security Group (WebSecGrp.. The user should configure ports 80 and 443 for Destination
0.0.0.0/0 as the route table directs traffic to the NAT instance from the private subnet.
QUESTION NO: 208
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using the wizard. The user has created public
and VPN only subnets along with hardware VPN access to connect to the user’s data centre. The
user has not yet launched any instance as well as modified or deleted any setup. He wants to
delete this VPC from the console. Will the console allow the user to delete the VPC?
A. Yes, the console will delete all the setups and also delete the virtual private gateway
B. No, the console will ask the user to manually detach the virtual private gateway first and
then allow deleting the VPC
C. Yes, the console will delete all the setups and detach the virtual private gateway
D. No, since the NAT instance is running
Answer: C
Explanation:
The user can create subnets as per the requirement within a VPC. If the user wants to connect
VPC from his own data centre, he can setup a public and VPN only subnet which uses hardware
VPN access to connect with his data centre. When the user has configured this setup with
Wizard, it will create a virtual private gateway to route all traffic of the VPN subnet. If the virtual
private gateway is attached with VPC and the user deletes the VPC from the console it will first
detach the gateway automatically and only then delete the VPC.
QUESTION NO: 209
A user is trying to create a PIOPS EBS volume with 4000 IOPS and 100 GB size. AWS does not
allow the user to create this volume. What is the possible root cause for this?
A. The ratio between IOPS and the EBS volume is higher than 30
B. The maximum IOPS supported by EBS is 3000
C. The ratio between IOPS and the EBS volume is lower than 50
D. PIOPS is supported for EBS higher than 500 GB size
Answer: A
Explanation:
A provisioned IOPS EBS volume can range in size from 10 GB to 1 TB and the user can provision
up to 4000 IOPS per volume. The ratio of IOPS provisioned to the volume size requested should
be a maximum of 30; for example, a volume with 3000 IOPS must be at least 100 GB.
QUESTION NO: 210
A user has setup a custom application which generates a number in decimals. The user wants to
track that number and setup the alarm whenever the number is above a certain limit. The
application is sending the data to CloudWatch at regular intervals for this purpose. Which of the
below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the above scenario?
A. The user can get the aggregate data of the numbers generated over a minute and send it to
CloudWatch
B. The user has to supply the timezone with each data point
C. CloudWatch will not truncate the number until it has an exponent larger than 126 (i.e.
(1 x 10^126) ).
D. The user can create a file in the JSON format with the metric name and value and supply it
to CloudWatch
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 211
A user has launched an EC2 Windows instance from an instance store backed AMI. The user has
also set the Instance initiated shutdown behavior to stop. What will happen when the user shuts
down the OS?
A. It will not allow the user to shutdown the OS when the shutdown behaviour is set to Stop
B. It is not possible to set the termination behaviour to Stop for an Instance store backed
AMI instance
C. The instance will stay running but the OS will be shutdown
D. The instance will be terminated
Answer: B
Explanation:
When the EC2 instance is launched from an instance store backed AMI, it will not allow the user
to configure the shutdown behaviour to “Stop”. It gives a warning that the instance does not have
the EBS root volume.
QUESTION NO: 212
A user has enabled versioning on an S3 bucket. The user is using server side encryption for data
at Rest. If the user is supplying his own keys for encryption (SSE-C., which of the below
mentioned statements is true?
A. The user should use the same encryption key for all versions of the same object
B. It is possible to have different encryption keys for different versions of the same object
C. AWS S3 does not allow the user to upload his own keys for server side encryption
D. The SSE-C does not work when versioning is enabled
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS S3 supports client side or server side encryption to encrypt all data at rest. The server side
encryption can either have the S3 supplied AES-256 encryption key or the user can send the key
along with each API call to supply his own encryption key (SSE-C.. If the bucket is versioningenabled,
each object version uploaded by the user using the SSE-C feature can have its own encryption key.
The user is responsible for tracking which encryption key was used for which object's version
QUESTION NO: 213
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The user has created one subnet with CIDR
20.0.0.0/16 in this VPC. The user is trying to create another subnet with the same VPC for
CIDR 20.0.0.1/24. What will happen in this scenario?
A. The VPC will modify the first subnet CIDR automatically to allow the second subnet IP range
B. It is not possible to create a subnet with the same CIDR as VPC
C. The second subnet will be created
D. It will throw a CIDR overlaps error
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. The user can create a
subnet with the same size of VPC. However, he cannot create any other subnet since the CIDR of
the second subnet will conflict with the first subnet.
QUESTION NO: 214
A user has launched an RDS MySQL DB with the Multi AZ feature. The user has scheduled the
scaling of instance storage during maintenance window. What is the correct order of events
during maintenance window?
Perform maintenance on standby
Promote standby to primary
Perform maintenance on original primary
Promote original master back as primary
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Running MySQL on the RDS DB instance as a Multi-AZ deployment can help the user reduce the
impact of a maintenance event, as the Amazon will conduct maintenance by following the steps in
the below mentioned order:
Perform maintenance on standby
Promote standby to primary
Perform maintenance on original primary, which becomes the new standby.
QUESTION NO: 215
A sys admin is using server side encryption with AWS S3. Which of the below mentioned
statements helps the user understand the S3 encryption functionality?
A. The server side encryption with the user supplied key works when versioning is enabled
B. The user can use the AWS console, SDK and APIs to encrypt or decrypt the content for
server side encryption with the user supplied key.
C. The user must send an AES-128 encrypted key
D. The user can upload his own encryption key to the S3 console
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS S3 supports client side or server side encryption to encrypt all data at rest. The server side
encryption can either have the S3 supplied AES-256 encryption key or the user can send the key
along with each API call to supply his own encryption key. The encryption with the user supplied
key (SSE-C. does not work with the AWS console. The S3 does not store the keys and the user
has to send a key with each request. The SSE-C works when the user has enabled versioning.
QUESTION NO: 216
A root account owner is trying to understand the S3 bucket ACL. Which of the below mentioned
options cannot be used to grant ACL on the object using the authorized predefined group?
A. Authenticated user group
B. All users group
C. Log Delivery Group
D. Canonical user group
Answer: D
Explanation:
An S3 bucket ACL grantee can be an AWS account or one of the predefined Amazon S3
groups. Amazon S3 has a set of predefined groups. When granting account access to a group,
the user can specify one of the URLs of that group instead of a canonical user ID. AWS S3 has
the following predefined groups:
Authenticated Users group: It represents all AWS accounts. All Users group: Access permission to
this group allows anyone to access the resource. Log Delivery group: WRITE permission on a
bucket enables this group to write server access logs to the bucket.
QUESTION NO: 217
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using the wizard. The user has created a public
subnet CIDR (20.0.0.0/24. and VPN only subnets CIDR (20.0.1.0/24. along with the VPN
gateway (vgw-12345. to connect to the user’s data centre. The user’s data centre has CIDR
172.28.0.0/12. The user has also setup a NAT instance (i-123456. to allow traffic to the internet
from the VPN subnet. Which of the below mentioned options is not a valid entry for the main
route table in this scenario?
A. Destination: 20.0.1.0/24 and Target: i-12345
B. Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 and Target: i-12345
C. Destination: 172.28.0.0/12 and Target: vgw-12345
D. Destination: 20.0.0.0/16 and Target: local
Answer: A
Explanation:
The user can create subnets as per the requirement within a VPC. If the user wants to connect
VPC from his own data centre, he can setup a public and VPN only subnet which uses hardware
VPN access to connect with his data centre. When the user has configured this setup with
Wizard, it will create a virtual private gateway to route all traffic of the VPN subnet. If the user has
setup a NAT instance to route all the internet requests then all requests to the internet should be
routed to it. All requests to the organization’s DC will be routed to the VPN gateway.
Here are the valid entries for the main route table in this scenario:
Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 & Target: i-12345 (To route all internet traffic to the NAT Instance.
Destination: 172.28.0.0/12 & Target: vgw-12345 (To route all the organization’s data centre traffic
to the VPN gateway.
Destination: 20.0.0.0/16 & Target: local (To allow local routing in VPC.
QUESTION NO: 218
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The VPC has
CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24 . The NAT instance ID is i-a12345.
Which of the below mentioned entries are required in the main route table attached with the
private subnet to allow instances to connect with the internet?
A. Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 and Target: i-a12345
B. Destination: 20.0.0.0/0 and Target: 80
C. Destination: 20.0.0.0/0 and Target: i-a12345
D. Destination: 20.0.0.0/24 and Target: i-a12345
Answer: A
Explanation:
A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has
created a public private subnet, the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic
directly from the Internet, whereas the instances in the private subnet cannot. If these subnets are
created with Wizard, AWS will create two route tables and attach to the subnets. The main route
table will have the entry “Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 and Target: ia12345”, which allows all the
instances in the private subnet to connect to the internet using NAT.
QUESTION NO: 219
A root account owner has given full access of his S3 bucket to one of the IAM users using the
bucket ACL. When the IAM user logs in to the S3 console, which actions can he perform?
A. He can just view the content of the bucket
B. He can do all the operations on the bucket
C. It is not possible to give access to an IAM user using ACL
D. The IAM user can perform all operations on the bucket using only API/SDK
Answer: C
Explanation:
Each AWS S3 bucket and object has an ACL (Access Control List. associated with it. An ACL is a
list of grants identifying the grantee and the permission granted. The user can use ACLs to grant
basic read/write permissions to other AWS accounts. ACLs use an Amazon S3–specific XML
schema. The user cannot grant permissions to other users (IAM users. in his account.
QUESTION NO: 220
An organization has configured Auto Scaling with ELB. There is a memory issue in the application
which is causing CPU utilization to go above 90%. The higher CPU usage triggers an event for
Auto Scaling as per the scaling policy. If the user wants to find the root cause inside the
application without triggering a scaling activity, how can he achieve this?
A. Stop the scaling process until research is completed
B. It is not possible to find the root cause from that instance without triggering scaling
C. Delete Auto Scaling until research is completed
D. Suspend the scaling process until research is completed
Answer: D
Explanation:
Auto Scaling allows the user to suspend and then resume one or more of the Auto Scaling
processes in the Auto Scaling group. This is very useful when the user wants to investigate a
configuration problem or some other issue, such as a memory leak with the web application and
then make changes to the application, without triggering the Auto Scaling process.
QUESTION NO: 221
A sys admin is planning to subscribe to the RDS event notifications. For which of the below
mentioned source categories the subscription cannot be configured?
A. DB security group
B. DB snapshot
C. DB options group
D. DB parameter group
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon RDS uses the Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS. to provide a notification when
an Amazon RDS event occurs. These events can be configured for source categories, such as
DB instance, DB security group, DB snapshot and DB parameter group.
QUESTION NO: 222
A user has launched an EC2 instance. The instance got terminated as soon as it was launched.
Which of the below mentioned options is not a possible reason for this?
A. The user account has reached the maximum EC2 instance limit
B. The snapshot is corrupt
C. The AMI is missing. It is the required part
D. The user account has reached the maximum volume limit
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user account has reached the maximum number of EC2 instances, it will not be
allowed to launch an instance. AWS will throw an ‘InstanceLimitExceeded’ error. For all other
reasons, such as “AMI is missing part”, “Corrupt Snapshot” or ”Volume limit has reached” it will
launch an EC2 instance and then terminate it.
QUESTION NO: 223
A user is trying to understand the detailed CloudWatch monitoring concept. Which of the
below mentioned services does not provide detailed monitoring with CloudWatch?
A. AWS EMR
B. AWS RDS
C. AWS ELB
D. AWS Route53
Answer: A
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or
detailed monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data points
to CloudWatch every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data points to
CloudWatch every minute. Services, such as RDS, EC2, Auto Scaling, ELB, and Route 53 can
provide the monitoring data every minute.
QUESTION NO: 224
A user is measuring the CPU utilization of a private data centre machine every minute. The
machine provides the aggregate of data every hour, such as Sum of data”, “Min value”, “Max
value, and “Number of Data points”.
The user wants to send these values to CloudWatch. How can the user achieve this?
A. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the aggregate-values parameter
B. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the average-values parameter
C. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the statistic-values parameter
D. Send the data using the put-metric-data command with the aggregate –data parameter
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS CloudWatch supports the custom metrics. The user can always capture the custom data
and upload the data to CloudWatch using CLI or APIs. The user can publish the data to
CloudWatch as single data points or as an aggregated set of data points called a statistic set
using the command put-metric-data. When sending the aggregate data, the user needs to send it
with the parameter statistic-values:
awscloudwatch put-metric-data --metric-name <Name> --namespace <Custom namespace> --
timestamp
<UTC Format> --statistic-values Sum=XX,Minimum=YY,Maximum=AA,SampleCount=BB --unit
Milliseconds
QUESTION NO: 225
A user has enabled detailed CloudWatch monitoring with the AWS Simple Notification Service.
Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand detailed monitoring better?
A. SNS will send data every minute after configuration
B. There is no need to enable since SNS provides data every minute
C. AWS CloudWatch does not support monitoring for SNS
D. SNS cannot provide data every minute
Answer: D
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or
detailed monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data
points to CloudWatch every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data points
to CloudWatch every minute. The AWS SNS service sends data every 5 minutes. Thus, it supports
only the basic monitoring. The user cannot enable detailed monitoring with SNS.
QUESTION NO: 226
A user has setup a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The VPC has a private subnet (20.0.1.0/24) and a
public subnet (20.0.0.0/240). The user’s data centre has CIDR of 20.0.54.0/24 and 20.1.0.0/24 If the
private subnet wants to communicate with the data centre, what will happen?
A. It will allow traffic communication on both the CIDRs of the data centre
B. It will not allow traffic with data centre on CIDR 20.1.0.0/24 but allows traffic communication on
20.0.54.0/24
C. It will not allow traffic communication on any of the data centre CIDRs
D. It will allow traffic with data centre on CIDR 20.1.0.0/24 but does not allow on 20.0.54.0/24
Answer: D
Explanation:
VPC allows the user to set up a connection between his VPC and corporate or home network
data centre. If the user has an IP address prefix in the VPC that overlaps with one of the
networks' prefixes, any traffic to the network's prefix is dropped. In this case CIDR 20.0.54.0/24
falls in the VPC’s CIDR range of 20.0.0.0/16. Thus, it will not allow traffic on that IP. In the case of
20.1.0.0/24, it does not fall in the VPC’s CIDR range. Thus, traffic will be allowed on it.
QUESTION NO: 227
A user wants to find the particular error that occurred on a certain date in the AWS MySQL RDS
DB. Which of the below mentioned activities may help the user to get the data easily?
A. It is not possible to get the log files for MySQL RDS
B. Find all the transaction logs and query on those records
C. Direct the logs to the DB table and then query that table
D. Download the log file to DynamoDB and search for the record
Answer: C
Explanation:
The user can view, download, and watch the database logs using the Amazon RDS console, the
Command Line Interface (CLI. or the Amazon RDS API. For the MySQL RDS, the user can view
the error log, slow query log, and general logs. The user can also view the MySQL logs easily by
directing the logs to a database table in the main database and querying that table.
QUESTION NO: 228
A user is trying to send custom metrics to CloudWatch using the PutMetricData APIs. Which of the
below mentioned points should the user needs to take care while sending the data to CloudWatch?
A. The size of a request is limited to 8KB for HTTP GET requests and 40KB for HTTP
POST requests
B. The size of a request is limited to 128KB for HTTP GET requests and 64KB for HTTP
POST requests
C. The size of a request is limited to 40KB for HTTP GET requests and 8KB for HTTP
POST requests
D. The size of a request is limited to 16KB for HTTP GET requests and 80KB for HTTP
POST requests
Answer: A
Explanation:
With AWS CloudWatch, the user can publish data points for a metric that share not only the
same time stamp, but also the same namespace and dimensions. CloudWatch can accept
multiple data points in the same PutMetricData call with the same time stamp. The only thing that
the user needs to take care of is that the size of a PutMetricData request is limited to 8KB for
HTTP GET requests and 40KB for HTTP POST requests.
QUESTION NO: 229
An AWS account owner has setup multiple IAM users. One IAM user only has CloudWatch access.
He has setup the alarm action which stops the EC2 instances when the CPU utilization is
below the threshold limit. What will happen in this case?
A. It is not possible to stop the instance using the CloudWatch alarm
B. CloudWatch will stop the instance when the action is executed
C. The user cannot set an alarm on EC2 since he does not have the permission
D. The user can setup the action but it will not be executed if the user does not have EC2 rights
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarms watch a single metric over a time period that the user specifies and
performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold over
a number of time periods. The user can setup an action which stops the instances when their
CPU utilization is below a certain threshold for a certain period of time. The EC2 action can either
terminate or stop the instance as part of the EC2 action. If the IAM user has read/write
permissions for Amazon CloudWatch but not for Amazon EC2, he can still create an alarm.
However, the stop or terminate actions will not be performed on the Amazon EC2 instance.
QUESTION NO: 230
A user has configured ELB with Auto Scaling. The user suspended the Auto Scaling terminate
process only for a while. What will happen to the availability zone rebalancing process
(AZRebalance. during this period?
A. Auto Scaling will not launch or terminate any instances
B. Auto Scaling will allow the instances to grow more than the maximum size
C. Auto Scaling will keep launching instances till the maximum instance size
D. It is not possible to suspend the terminate process while keeping the launch active
Answer: B
Explanation:
Auto Scaling performs various processes, such as Launch, Terminate, Availability
Zone Rebalance (AZRebalance. etc. The AZRebalance process type seeks to maintain a balanced number
of instances across Availability Zones within a region. If the user suspends the Terminate process,
the AZRebalance process can cause the Auto Scaling group to grow up to ten percent larger than
the maximum size. This is because Auto Scaling allows groups to temporarily grow larger than the
maximum size during rebalancing activities. If Auto Scaling cannot terminate instances, the Auto
Scaling group could remain up to ten percent larger than the maximum size until the user
resumes the Terminate process type.
QUESTION NO: 231
A user has created a mobile application which makes calls to DynamoDB to fetch certain data.
The application is using the DynamoDB SDK and root account access/secret access key to
connect to DynamoDB from mobile. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect
to the best practice for security in this scenario?
A. The user should create a separate IAM user for each mobile application and
provide DynamoDB access with it.
B. The user should create an IAM role with DynamoDB and EC2 access. Attach the role with
EC2 and route all calls from the mobile through EC2.
C. The application should use an IAM role with web identity federation which validates calls
to DynamoDB with identity providers, such as Google, Amazon, and Facebook.
D. Create an IAM Role with DynamoDB access and attach it with the mobile application
Answer: C
Explanation:
With AWS IAM a user is creating an application which runs on an EC2 instance and makes
requests to AWS, such as DynamoDB or S3 calls. Here it is recommended that the user should
not create an IAM user and pass the user's credentials to the application or embed those
credentials inside the application. If the user is creating an app that runs on a mobile phone and
makes requests to AWS, the user should not create an IAMuser and distribute the user's access
key with the app. Instead, he should use an identity provider, such as Login with Amazon,
Facebook, or Google to authenticate the users, and then use that identity to get temporary
security credentials.
QUESTION NO: 232
A user is configuring the Multi AZ feature of an RDS DB. The user came to know that this RDS
DB does not use the AWS technology, but uses server mirroring to achieve HA. Which DB is the
user using right now?
A. My SQL
B. Oracle
C. MS SQL
D. PostgreSQL
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi AZ
deployments. In a Multi AZ deployment, Amazon RDS automatically provisions and maintains a
synchronous standby replica in a different Availability Zone. Multi AZ deployments for Oracle,
PostgreSQL, and MySQL DB instances use Amazon technology, while SQL Server (MS SQL.
DB instances use SQL Server Mirroring.
QUESTION NO: 233
A user is receiving a notification from the RDS DB whenever there is a change in the DB security
group. The user does not want to receive these notifications for only a month. Thus, he does not
want to delete the notification. How can the user configure this?
A. Change the Disable button for notification to “Yes” in the RDS console
B. Set the send mail flag to false in the DB event notification console
C. The only option is to delete the notification from the console
D. Change the Enable button for notification to “No” in the RDS console
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon RDS uses the Amazon Simple Notification Service to provide a notification when an
Amazon RDS event occurs. Event notifications are sent to the addresses that the user has
provided while creating the subscription. The user can easily turn off the notification without
deleting a subscription by setting the Enabled radio button to No in the Amazon RDS console or
by setting the Enabled parameter to false using the CLI or Amazon RDS API.
QUESTION NO: 234
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The user has created one subnet with CIDR
20.0.0.0/16 by mistake. The user is trying to create another subnet of CIDR 20.0.0.1/24. How can
the user create the second subnet?
A. There is no need to update the subnet as VPC automatically adjusts the CIDR of the
first subnet based on the second subnet’s CIDR
B. The user can modify the first subnet CIDR from the console
C. It is not possible to create a second subnet as one subnet with the same CIDR as the VPC
has been created
D. The user can modify the first subnet CIDR with AWS CLI
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user can
create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside the subnet. The user can create a subnet
with the same size of VPC. However, he cannot create any other subnet since the CIDR of the
second subnet will conflict with the first subnet. The user cannot modify the CIDR of a subnet once
it is created. Thus, in this case if required, the user has to delete the subnet and create new
subnets.
QUESTION NO: 235
A user has created a VPC with the public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The VPC has
CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The public subnet uses CIDR 20.0.1.0/24. The user is planning to host a web server
in the public subnet (port 80. and a DB server in the private subnet (port 3306.. The user is
configuring a security group for the public subnet (WebSecGrp. and the private subnet
(DBSecGrp.. Which of the below mentioned entries is required in the web server security group
(WebSecGrp.?
A. Configure Destination as DB Security group ID (DbSecGrp. for port 3306 Outbound
B. 80 for Destination 0.0.0.0/0 Outbound
C. Configure port 3306 for source 20.0.0.0/24 InBound
D. Configure port 80 InBound for source 20.0.0.0/16
Answer: A
Explanation:
A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has
created a public private subnet to host the web server and DB server respectively, the user should
configure that the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic directly from the
internet. Thus, the user should configure port 80 with source 0.0.0.0/0 in InBound. The user
should configure that the instance in the public subnet can send traffic to the private subnet
instances on the DB port. Thus, the user should configure the DB security group of the private
subnet (DbSecGrp. as the destination for port 3306 in Outbound.
QUESTION NO: 236
A user is trying to understand the detailed CloudWatch monitoring concept. Which of the below
mentioned services provides detailed monitoring with CloudWatch without charging the user
extra?
A. AWS Auto Scaling
B. AWS Route 53
C. AWS EMR
D. AWS SNS
Answer: B
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or
detailed monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data
points to CloudWatch every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data points
to CloudWatch every minute. Services, such as RDS, ELB, OpsWorks, and Route 53 can provide
the monitoring data every minute without charging the user.
QUESTION NO: 237
A user is trying to understand the CloudWatch metrics for the AWS services. It is required that
the user should first understand the namespace for the AWS services. Which of the below
mentioned is not a valid namespace for the AWS services?
A. AWS/StorageGateway
B. AWS/CloudTrail
C. AWS/ElastiCache
D. AWS/SWF
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch is basically a metrics repository. The AWS product puts metrics into this
repository, and the user can retrieve the data or statistics based on those metrics. To distinguish
the data for each service, the CloudWatch metric has a namespace. Namespaces are containers
for metrics. All AWS services that provide the Amazon CloudWatch data use a namespace
string, beginning with "AWS/". All the services which are supported by CloudWatch will have
some namespace. CloudWatch does not monitor CloudTrail. Thus, the namespace
“AWS/CloudTrail” is incorrect.
QUESTION NO: 238
A system admin is planning to encrypt all objects being uploaded to S3 from an application. The
system admin does not want to implement his own encryption algorithm; instead he is planning to
use server side encryption by supplying his own key (SSE-C.. Which parameter is not required
while making a call for SSE-C?
A. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-key-AES-256
B. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-key
C. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-algorithm
D. x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-key-MD5
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS S3 supports client side or server side encryption to encrypt all data at rest. The server side
encryption can either have the S3 supplied AES-256 encryption key or the user can send the key
along with each API call to supply his own encryption key (SSE-C.. When the user is supplying
his own encryption key, the user has to send the below mentioned parameters as a part of the
API calls:
x-amz-server-side-encryption-customer-algorithm: Specifies the encryption algorithm
x-amzserver-side-encryption-customer-key: To provide the base64-encoded encryption key
x-amzserver-side-encryption-customer-key-MD5: To provide the base64-encoded 128-bit MD5
digest of the encryption key
QUESTION NO: 239
A user is using the AWS SQS to decouple the services. Which of the below mentioned
operations is not supported by SQS?
A. SendMessageBatch
B. DeleteMessageBatch
C. CreateQueue
D. DeleteMessageQueue
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS. is a fast, reliable, scalable, and fully managed message
queuing service. SQS provides a simple and cost-effective way to decouple the components of an
application. The user can perform the following set of operations using the Amazon SQS:
CreateQueue, ListQueues, DeleteQueue, SendMessage, SendMessageBatch, ReceiveMessage,
DeleteMessage, DeleteMessageBatch, ChangeMessageVisibility, ChangeMessageVisibilityBatch,
SetQueueAttributes, GetQueueAttributes, GetQueueUrl, AddPermission and RemovePermission.
Operations can be performed only by the AWS account owner or an AWS account that the
account owner has delegated to.
QUESTION NO: 240
A user has configured Auto Scaling with 3 instances. The user had created a new AMI after
updating one of the instances. If the user wants to terminate two specific instances to ensure that
Auto Scaling launches an instances with the new launch configuration, which command should he
run?
A. as-delete-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --no-decrement-desired-capacity
B. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --update-desired-capacity
C. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --decrement-desired-capacity
D. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --no-decrement-desired-capacity
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Auto Scaling command as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID>
will terminate the specific instance ID. The user is required to specify the parameter as
–no-decrement-desiredcapacity to ensure that it launches a new instance from the launch config
after terminating the instance. If the user specifies the parameter --decrement-desired-capacity
then Auto Scaling will terminate the instance and decrease the desired capacity by 1.
QUESTION NO: 241
A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI. If the user restarts the
instance, what will happen to the ephermal storage data?
A. All the data will be erased but the ephermal storage will stay connected
B. All data will be erased and the ephermal storage is released
C. It is not possible to restart an instance launched from an instance store backed AMI
D. The data is preserved
Answer: D
Explanation:
A user can reboot an EC2 instance using the AWS console, the Amazon EC2 CLI or the
Amazon EC2 API. Rebooting an instance is equivalent to rebooting an operating system.
However, it is recommended that the user use Amazon EC2 to reboot the instance instead of
running the operating system reboot command from the instance. When an instance launched
from an instance store backed AMI is rebooted all the ephermal storage data is still preserved.
QUESTION NO: 242
A user has launched an EC2 instance. However, due to some reason the instance was terminated.
If the user wants to find out the reason for termination, where can he find the details?
A. It is not possible to find the details after the instance is terminated
B. The user can get information from the AWS console, by checking the Instance
description under the State transition reason label
C. The user can get information from the AWS console, by checking the Instance
description under the Instance Status Change reason label
D. The user can get information from the AWS console, by checking the Instance
description under the Instance Termination reason label
Answer: D
Explanation:
An EC2 instance, once terminated, may be available in the AWS console for a while after
termination. The user can find the details about the termination from the description tab under the
label State transition reason. If the instance is still running, there will be no reason listed. If the user
has explicitly stopped or terminated the instance, the reason will be “User initiated shutdown”.
QUESTION NO: 243
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user has used all the IPs of CIDR and
wants to increase the size of the VPC. The user has two subnets: public (20.0.0.0/28. and private
(20.0.1.0/28). How can the user change the size of the VPC?
A. The user can delete all the instances of the subnet. Change the size of the subnets
to 20.0.0.0/32 and 20.0.1.0/32, respectively. Then the user can increase the size of the VPC using CLI
B. It is not possible to change the size of the VPC once it has been created
C. The user can add a subnet with a higher range so that it will automatically increase the size of the
VPC.
D. The user can delete the subnets first and then modify the size of the VPC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Once the user has created a VPC, he cannot change the CIDR of that VPC. The user has to terminate
all the instances, delete the subnets and then delete the VPC. Create a new VPC with a higher size
and launch instances with the newly created VPC and subnets.
QUESTION NO: 244
A user has configured ELB with SSL using a security policy for secure negotiation between the
client and load balancer. Which of the below mentioned security policies is supported by ELB?
A. Dynamic Security Policy
B. All the other options
C. Predefined Security Policy
D. Default Security Policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which is
known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and the
loadbalancer. ELB supports two policies:
Predefined Security Policy: which comes with predefined cipher and SSL protocols;
Custom Security Policy: which allows the user to configure a policy.
QUESTION NO: 245
A user has granted read/write permission of his S3 bucket using ACL. Which of the below
mentioned options is a valid ID to grant permission to other AWS accounts (grantee. using ACL?
A. IAM User ID
B. S3 Secure ID
C. Access ID
D. Canonical user ID
Answer: D
Explanation:
An S3 bucket ACL grantee can be an AWS account or one of the predefined Amazon S3
groups. The user can grant permission to an AWS account by the email address of that account
or by the canonical user ID. If the user provides an email in the grant request, Amazon S3 finds
the canonical user ID for that account and adds it to the ACL. The resulting ACL will always
contain the canonical user ID for the AWS account, and not the AWS account's email address.
QUESTION NO: 246
A user has configured an ELB to distribute the traffic among multiple instances. The user
instances are facing some issues due to the back-end servers. Which of the below
mentioned CloudWatch metrics helps the user understand the issue with the instances?
A. HTTPCode_Backend_3XX
B. HTTPCode_Backend_4XX
C. HTTPCode_Backend_2XX
D. HTTPCode_Backend_5XX
Answer: D
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. For ELB, CloudWatch
provides various metrics including error code by ELB as well as by back-end servers (instances..
It gives data for the count of the number of HTTP response codes generated by the back-end
instances. This metric does not include any response codes generated by the load balancer.
These metrics are:
The 2XX class status codes represents successful actions
The 3XX class status code indicates that the user agent requires action
The 4XX class status code represents client errors
The 5XX class status code represents back-end server errors
QUESTION NO: 247
A user has launched an EC2 instance store backed instance in the US-East-1a zone. The user
created AMI #1 and copied it to the Europe region. After that, the user made a few updates to the
application running in the US-East-1a zone. The user makes an AMI#2 after the changes. If the
user launches a new instance in Europe from the AMI #1 copy, which of the below mentioned
statements is true?
A. The new instance will have the changes made after the AMI copy as AWS just copies the
reference of the original AMI during the copying. Thus, the copied AMI will have all the
updated data.
B. The new instance will have the changes made after the AMI copy since AWS keeps updating the AMI.
C. It is not possible to copy the instance store backed AMI from one region to another.
D. The new instance in the EU region will not have the changes made after the AMI copy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Within EC2, when the user copies an AMI, the new AMI is fully independent of the source AMI;
there is no link to the original (source. AMI. The user can modify the source AMI without
affecting the new AMI and vice a versa. Therefore, in this case even if the source AMI is
modified, the copied AMI of the EU region will not have the changes. Thus, after copy the user
needs to copy the new source AMI to the destination region to get those changes.
QUESTION NO: 248
A user runs the command “dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/xvdfbs=1M” on a fresh blank EBS volume
attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below mentioned activities is the user performing with
the command given above?
A. Creating a file system on the EBS volume
B. Mounting the device to the instance
C. Pre warming the EBS volume
D. Formatting the EBS volume
Answer: C
Explanation:
When the user creates a new EBS volume and is trying to access it for the first time it will
encounter reduced IOPS due to wiping or initiating of the block storage. To avoid this as well as
achieve the best performance it is required to pre warm the EBS volume. For a blank volume
attached with a Linux OS, the “dd” command is used to write to all the blocks on the device. In
the command “dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/xvdfbs=1M” the parameter “if =import file” should be set to
one of the Linux virtual devices, such as /dev/zero. The “of=output file” parameter should be set
to the drive that the user wishes to warm. The “bs” parameter sets the block size of the write
operation; for optimal performance, this should be set to 1 MB.
QUESTION NO: 249
A user has created an Auto Scaling group using CLI. The user wants to enable CloudWatch
detailed monitoring for that group. How can the user configure this?
A. When the user sets an alarm on the Auto Scaling group, it automatically enables detail monitoring
B. By default detailed monitoring is enabled for Auto Scaling
C. Auto Scaling does not support detailed monitoring
D. Enable detail monitoring from the AWS console
Answer: B
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or
detailed monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data
points to CloudWatch every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data
points to CloudWatch every minute. To enable detailed instance monitoring for a new Auto Scaling
group, the user does not need to take any extra steps. When the user creates an Auto Scaling
launch config as the first step for creating an Auto Scaling group, each launch configuration
contains a flag named InstanceMonitoring.Enabled. The default value of this flag is true. Thus,
the user does not need to set this flag if he wants detailed monitoring.
QUESTION NO: 250
A user has created a VPC with a public subnet. The user has terminated all the instances which
are part of the subnet. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to this
scenario?
A. The user cannot delete the VPC since the subnet is not deleted
B. All network interface attached with the instances will be deleted
C. When the user launches a new instance it cannot use the same subnet
D. The subnet to which the instances were launched with will be deleted
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. When an instance is
launched it will have a network interface attached with it. The user cannot delete the subnet until
he terminates the instance and deletes the network interface. When the user terminates the
instance all the network interfaces attached with it are also deleted.
QUESTION NO: 251
A user has configured ELB with SSL using a security policy for secure negotiation between the
client and load balancer. The ELB security policy supports various ciphers. Which of the below
mentioned options helps identify the matching cipher at the client side to the ELB cipher list when
client is requesting ELB DNS over SSL?
A. Cipher Protocol
B. Client Configuration Preference
C. Server Order Preference
D. Load Balancer Preference
Answer: C
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which
is known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and the
loadbalancer. When client is requesting ELB DNS over SSL and if the load balancer is configured to
support the Server Order Preference, then the load balancer gets to select the first cipher in its
list that matches any one of the ciphers in the client's list. Server Order Preference ensures that
the load balancer determines which cipher is used for the SSL connection.
QUESTION NO: 252
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The
private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.1.0/24 and the public subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user is
planning to host a web server in the public subnet (port 80. and a DB server in the private subnet
(port 3306.. The user is configuring a security group of the NAT instance. Which of the below
mentioned entries is not required for the NAT security group?
A. For Inbound allow Source: 20.0.1.0/24 on port 80
B. For Outbound allow Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 on port 80
C. For Inbound allow Source: 20.0.0.0/24 on port 80
D. For Outbound allow Destination: 0.0.0.0/0 on port 443
Answer: C
Explanation:
A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has
created a public private subnet to host the web server and DB server respectively, the user
should configure that the instances in the private subnet can connect to the internet using the
NAT instances. The user should first configure that NAT can receive traffic on ports 80 and 443
from the private subnet. Thus, allow ports 80 and 443 in Inbound for the private subnet
20.0.1.0/24. Now to route this traffic to the internet configure ports 80 and 443 in Outbound with
destination 0.0.0.0/0. The NAT should not have an entry for the public subnet CIDR.
QUESTION NO: 253
A user has created an application which will be hosted on EC2. The application makes calls to
DynamoDB to fetch certain data. The application is using the DynamoDB SDK to connect with
from the EC2 instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the best
practice for security in this scenario?
A. The user should attach an IAM role with DynamoDB access to the EC2 instance
B. The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB access and use its credentials within the
application to connect with DynamoDB
C. The user should create an IAM role, which has EC2 access so that it will allow deploying
the application
D. The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB and EC2 access. Attach the user with the
application so that it does not use the root account credentials
Answer: A
Explanation:
With AWS IAM a user is creating an application which runs on an EC2 instance and makes
requests to AWS, such as DynamoDB or S3 calls. Here it is recommended that the user should
not create an IAM user and pass the user's credentials to the application or embed those
credentials inside the application. Instead, the user should use roles for EC2 and give that role
access to DynamoDB /S3. When the roles are attached to EC2, it will give temporary security
credentials to the application hosted on that EC2, to connect with DynamoDB / S3.
QUESTION NO: 254
An organization (Account ID 123412341234. has attached the below mentioned IAM policy to a
user. What does this policy statement entitle the user to perform?
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [{
"Sid": "AllowUsersAllActionsForCredentials",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": [
"iam:*LoginProfile",
"iam:*AccessKey*",
"iam:*SigningCertificate*"
],
"Resource": ["arn:aws:iam:: 123412341234:user/${aws:username}"]
}]
}
A. The policy allows the IAM user to modify all IAM user’s credentials using the console, SDK,
CLI or APIs
B. The policy will give an invalid resource error
C. The policy allows the IAM user to modify all credentials using only the console
D. The policy allows the user to modify all IAM user’s password, sign in certificates and access
keys using only CLI, SDK or APIs
Answer: D
Explanation:
WS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. If the organization (Account ID
123412341234. wants some of their users to manage credentials (access keys, password, and
sing in certificates. of all IAM users, they should set an applicable policy to that user or group of
users. The below mentioned policy allows the IAM user to modify the credentials of all IAM user’s
using only CLI, SDK or APIs. The user cannot use the AWS console for this activity since he does
not have list permission for the IAM users.
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [{
"Sid": "AllowUsersAllActionsForCredentials",
"Effect": "Allow"
"Action": [
"iam:*LoginProfile",
"iam:*AccessKey*",
"iam:*SigningCertificate*"
],
"Resource": ["arn:aws:iam::123412341234:user/${aws:username}"]
}]
}
QUESTION NO: 255
A sys admin is trying to understand the sticky session algorithm. Please select the correct
sequence of steps, both when the cookie is present and when it is not, to help the admin
understand the implementation of the sticky session:
ELB inserts the cookie in the response
ELB chooses the instance based on the load balancing algorithm
Check the cookie in the service request
The cookie is found in the request
The cookie is not found in the request
A. 3,1,4,2 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,1,5,2 [Cookie is Present]
B. 3,4,1,2 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,5,1,2 [Cookie is Present]
C. 3,5,2,1 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,4,2,1 [Cookie is Present]
D. 3,2,5,4 [Cookie is not Present] & 3,2,4,5 [Cookie is Present]
Answer: C
Explanation:
Generally AWS ELB routes each request to a zone with the minimum load. The Elastic Load
Balancer provides a feature called sticky session which binds the user’s session with a specific
EC2 instance. The load balancer uses a special load-balancer-generated cookie to track the
application instance for each request. When the load balancer receives a request, it first checks to
see if this cookie is present in the request. If so, the request is sent to the application instance
specified in the cookie. If there is no cookie, the load balancer chooses an application instance
based on the existing load balancing algorithm. A cookie is inserted into the response for binding
subsequent requests from the same user to that application instance.
QUESTION NO: 256
A user has a weighing plant. The user measures the weight of some goods every 5 minutes and
sends data to AWS CloudWatch for monitoring and tracking. Which of the below mentioned
parameters is mandatory for the user to include in the request list?
A. Value
B. Namespace
C. Metric Name
D. Timezone
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS CloudWatch supports the custom metrics. The user can always capture the custom data and
upload the data to CloudWatch using CLI or APIs. The user can publish the data to CloudWatch as
single data points or as an aggregated set of data points called a statistic set. The user has to
always include the namespace as part of the request. The user can supply a file instead of the
metric name. If the user does not supply the timezone, it accepts the current time. If the user is
sending the data as a single data point it will have parameters, such as value. However, if the
user is sending as an aggregate it will have parameters, such as statistic-values.
QUESTION NO: 257
An organization has configured Auto Scaling for hosting their application. The system admin wants
to understand the Auto Scaling health check process. If the instance is unhealthy, Auto Scaling
launches an instance and terminates the unhealthy instance. What is the order execution?
A. Auto Scaling launches a new instance first and then terminates the unhealthy instance
B. Auto Scaling performs the launch and terminate processes in a random order
C. Auto Scaling launches and terminates the instances simultaneously
D. Auto Scaling terminates the instance first and then launches a new instance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Auto Scaling keeps checking the health of the instances at regular intervals and marks
the instance for replacement when it is unhealthy. The ReplaceUnhealthy process terminates
instances which are marked as unhealthy and subsequently creates new instances to replace them.
This process first terminates the instance and then launches a new instance.
QUESTION NO: 258
A user is trying to connect to a running EC2 instance using SSH. However, the user gets an Unprotected
Private Key File error. Which of the below mentioned options can be a possible reason for rejection?
A. The private key file has the wrong file permission
B. The ppk file used for SSH is read only
C. The public key file has the wrong permission
D. The user has provided the wrong user name for the OS login
Answer: A
Explanation:
While doing SSH to an EC2 instance, if you get an Unprotected Private Key File error it means
that the private key file's permissions on your computer are too open. Ideally the private key
should have the Unix permission of 0400. To fix that, run the command:
# chmod 0400 /path/to/private.key
QUESTION NO: 259
A user has provisioned 2000 IOPS to the EBS volume. The application hosted on that EBS is
experiencing less IOPS than provisioned. Which of the below mentioned options does not affect
the IOPS of the volume?
A. The application does not have enough IO for the volume
B. The instance is EBS optimized
C. The EC2 instance has 10 Gigabit Network connectivity
D. The volume size is too large
Answer: D
Explanation:
When the application does not experience the expected IOPS or throughput of the PIOPS EBS
volume that was provisioned, the possible root cause could be that the EC2 bandwidth is the
limiting factor and the instance might not be either EBS-optimized or might not have 10 Gigabit
network connectivity. Another possible cause for not experiencing the expected IOPS could
also be that the user is not driving enough I/O to the EBS volumes. The size of the volume may
not affect IOPS.
QUESTION NO: 260
A storage admin wants to encrypt all the objects stored in S3 using server side encryption. The
user does not want to use the AES 256 encryption key provided by S3. How can the user
achieve this?
A. The admin should upload his secret key to the AWS console and let S3 decrypt the objects
B. The admin should use CLI or API to upload the encryption key to the S3 bucket. When
making a call to the S3 API mention the encryption key URL in each request
C. S3 does not support client supplied encryption keys for server side encryption
D. The admin should send the keys and encryption algorithm with each API call
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS S3 supports client side or server side encryption to encrypt all data at rest. The server side
encryption can either have the S3 supplied AES-256 encryption key or the user can send the
key along with each API callto supply his own encryption key. Amazon S3 never stores the
user’s encryption key. The user has to supply it for each encryption or decryption call.
QUESTION NO: 261
A user is trying to create a PIOPS EBS volume with 8 GB size and 200 IOPS. Will AWS create
the volume?
A. Yes, since the ratio between EBS and IOPS is less than 30
B. No, since the PIOPS and EBS size ratio is less than 30
C. No, the EBS size is less than 10 GB
D. Yes, since PIOPS is higher than 100
Answer: C
Explanation:
A provisioned IOPS EBS volume can range in size from 10 GB to 1 TB and the user can provision
up to 4000 IOPS per volume. The ratio of IOPS provisioned to the volume size requested should
be a maximum of 30; for example, a volume with 3000 IOPS must be at least 100 GB.
QUESTION NO: 262
A user has scheduled the maintenance window of an RDS DB on Monday at 3 AM. Which of the below
mentioned events may force to take the DB instance offline during the maintenance window?
A. Enabling Read Replica
B. Making the DB Multi AZ
C. DB password change
D. Security patching
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon RDS performs maintenance on the DB instance during a user-definable maintenance
window. The system may be offline or experience lower performance during that window. The
only maintenance events that may require RDS to make the DB instance offline are:
Scaling compute operations Software patching. Required software patching is automatically
scheduled only for patches that are security and durability related. Such patching occurs
infrequently (typically once every few months. and seldom requires more than a fraction of
the maintenance window.
QUESTION NO: 263
An organization has launched 5 instances: 2 for production and 3 for testing. The organization
wants that one particular group of IAM users should only access the test instances and not the
production ones. How can the organization set that as a part of the policy?
A. Launch the test and production instances in separate regions and allow region wise access
to the group
B. Define the IAM policy which allows access based on the instance ID
C. Create an IAM policy with a condition which allows access to only small instances
D. Define the tags on the test and production servers and add a condition to the IAM policy
which allows access to specific tags
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. The user can add conditions as a part of
the IAM policies. The condition can be set on AWS Tags, Time, and Client IP as well as on various
parameters. If the organization wants the user to access only specific instances he should define
proper tags and add to the IAM policy condition. The sample policy is shown below.
"Statement": [
{
"Action": "ec2:*",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Resource": "*",
"Condition": {
"StringEquals": {
"ec2:ResourceTag/InstanceType": "Production"
}
}
}
]
QUESTION NO: 264
A user has configured Auto Scaling with the minimum capacity as 2 and the desired capacity as 2.
The user is trying to terminate one of the existing instance with the command:
as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group<Instance ID> --decrement-desired-capacity
What will Auto Scaling do in this scenario?
A. Terminates the instance and does not launch a new instance
B. Terminates the instance and updates the desired capacity to 1
C. Terminates the instance and updates the desired capacity and minimum size to 1
D. Throws an error
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Auto Scaling command as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID>
will terminate the specific instance ID. The user is required to specify the parameter as
--decrement-desiredcapacity. Then Auto Scaling will terminate the instance and decrease the desired
capacity by 1. In this case since the minimum size is 2, Auto Scaling will not allow the desired
capacity to go below 2. Thus, it will throw an error.
QUESTION NO: 265
A user is collecting 1000 records per second. The user wants to send the data to
CloudWatch using the custom namespace. Which of the below mentioned options is recommended
for this activity?
A. Aggregate the data with statistics, such as Min, max, Average, Sum and Sample data and
send the data to CloudWatch
B. Send all the data values to CloudWatch in a single command by separating them with a comma.
CloudWatch will parse automatically
C. Create one csv file of all the data and send a single file to CloudWatch
D. It is not possible to send all the data in one call. Thus, it should be sent one by one.
CloudWatch will aggregate the data automatically
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS CloudWatch supports the custom metrics. The user can always capture the custom data and
upload the data to CloudWatch using CLI or APIs. The user can publish data to CloudWatch as
single data points or as an aggregated set of data points called a statistic set using the command
put-metric-data. It is recommended that when the user is having multiple data points per minute, he
should aggregate the data so that it will minimize the number of calls to put-metric-data. In this
case it will be single call to CloudWatch instead of 1000 calls if the data is aggregated.
QUESTION NO: 266
A user is trying to create an EBS volume with the highest PIOPS supported by EBS. What is the
minimum size of EBS required to have the maximum IOPS?
A. 124
B. 150
C. 134
D. 128
Answer: C
Explanation:
A provisioned IOPS EBS volume can range in size from 10 GB to 1 TB and the user can
provision up to 4000 IOPS per volume. The ratio of IOPS provisioned to the volume size
requested should be a maximum of 30.
QUESTION NO: 267
An organization is trying to create various IAM users. Which of the below mentioned options is not
a valid IAM username?
A. John.cloud
B. john@cloud
C. John=cloud
D. john#cloud
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. Whenever the organization is creating an
IAM user, there should be a unique ID for each user. The names of users, groups, roles, instance
profiles must be alphanumeric, including the following common characters: plus (+., equal (=.,
comma (,., period (.., at (@., and dash (-..
QUESTION NO: 268
A user is having data generated randomly based on a certain event. The user wants to upload that
data to CloudWatch. It may happen that event may not have data generated for some period due to
andomness. Which of the below mentioned options is a recommended option for this case?
A. For the period when there is no data, the user should not send the data at all
B. For the period when there is no data the user should send a blank value
C. For the period when there is no data the user should send the value as 0
D. The user must upload the data to CloudWatch as having no data for some period will cause
an error at CloudWatch monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS CloudWatch supports the custom metrics. The user can always capture the custom data
and upload the data to CloudWatch using CLI or APIs. When the user data is more random and
not generated at regular intervals, there can be a period which has no associated data. The user
can either publish the zero (0. Value for that period or not publish the data at all. It is
recommended that the user should publish zero instead of no value to monitor the health of the
application. This is helpful in an alarm as well as in the generation of the sample data count.
QUESTION NO: 269
A user is sending the data to CloudWatch using the CloudWatch API. The user is sending data 90
minutes in the future. What will CloudWatch do in this case?
A. CloudWatch will accept the data
B. It is not possible to send data of the future
C. It is not possible to send the data manually to CloudWatch
D. The user cannot send data for more than 60 minutes in the future
Answer: A
Explanation:
With Amazon CloudWatch, each metric data point must be marked with a time stamp. The user
can send the data using CLI but the time has to be in the UTC format. If the user does not provide
the time, CloudWatch will take the data received time in the UTC timezone. The time stamp sent
by the user can be up to two weeks in the past and up to two hours into the future.
QUESTION NO: 270
A user wants to upload a complete folder to AWS S3 using the S3 Management console. How can
the user perform this activity?
A. Just drag and drop the folder using the flash tool provided by S3
B. Use the Enable Enhanced Folder option from the S3 console while uploading objects
C. The user cannot upload the whole folder in one go with the S3 management console
D. Use the Enable Enhanced Uploader option from the S3 console while uploading objects
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS S3 provides a console to upload objects to a bucket. The user can use the file upload
screen to upload the whole folder in one go by clicking on the Enable Enhanced Uploader option.
When the user uploads afolder, Amazon S3 uploads all the files and subfolders from the specified
folder to the user’s bucket. It then assigns a key value that is a combination of the uploaded file
name and the folder name.
QUESTION NO: 271
Which of the below mentioned AWS RDS logs cannot be viewed from the console for MySQL?
A. Error Log
B. Slow Query Log
C. Transaction Log
D. General Log
Answer: C
Explanation:
The user can view, download, and watch the database logs using the Amazon RDS console, the
Command Line Interface (CLI., or the Amazon RDS API. For the MySQL RDS, the user can view
the error log, slow querylog, and general logs. RDS does not support viewing the transaction logs.
QUESTION NO: 272
A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance in the US-East-1a region. The user stopped
the instance and started it back after 20 days. AWS throws up an ‘InsufficientInstanceCapacity’
error. What can be the possible reason for this?
A. AWS does not have sufficient capacity in that availability zone
B. AWS zone mapping is changed for that user account
C. There is some issue with the host capacity on which the instance is launched
D. The user account has reached the maximum EC2 instance limit
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user gets an ‘InsufficientInstanceCapacity’ error while launching or starting an EC2
instance, it means that AWS does not currently have enough available capacity to service the user
request. If the user is requesting a large number of instances, there might not be enough server
capacity to host them. The user can either try again later, by specifying a smaller number of
instances or changing the availability zone if launching a fresh instance.
QUESTION NO: 273
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. Which of the
below mentioned statements is true in this scenario?
A. The AWS VPC will automatically create a NAT instance with the micro size
B. VPC bounds the main route table with a private subnet and a custom route table with a
public subnet
C. The user has to manually create a NAT instance
D. VPC bounds the main route table with a public subnet and a custom route table with a
private subnet
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has created a
public private subnet, the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic directly from
the internet, whereas the instances in the private subnet cannot. If these subnets are created with
Wizard, AWS will create a NAT instance of a smaller or higher size, respectively. The VPC has an
implied router and the VPC wizard updates the main route table used with the private subnet,
creates a custom route table and associates it with the public subnet.
QUESTION NO: 274
The CFO of a company wants to allow one of his employees to view only the AWS usage report
page. Which of the below mentioned IAM policy statements allows the user to have access to the
AWS usage report page?
A. "Effect": "Allow", "Action": [“Describe”], "Resource": "Billing"
B. "Effect": "Allow", "Action": ["AccountUsage], "Resource": "*"
C. "Effect": "Allow", "Action": ["aws-portal:ViewUsage"], "Resource": "*"
D. "Effect": "Allow", "Action": ["aws-portal: ViewBilling"], "Resource": "*"
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. If the CFO wants to allow only AWS usage
report page access, the policy for that IAM user will be as given below:
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [
168
{
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": [
"aws-portal:ViewUsage"
],
"Resource": "*"
}
]
}
QUESTION NO: 275
An organization has created 10 IAM users. The organization wants each of the IAM users to
have access to a separate DyanmoDB table. All the users are added to the same group and the
organization wants to setup a group level policy for this. How can the organization achieve this?
A. Define the group policy and add a condition which allows the access based on the IAM name
B. Create a DynamoDB table with the same name as the IAM user name and define the policy rule
which grants access based on the DynamoDB ARN using a variable
C. Create a separate DynamoDB database for each user and configure a policy in the group based
on the DB variable.
D. It is not possible to have a group level policy which allows different IAM users to different
DynamoDB Tables.
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. AWS DynamoDB has only tables and the
organization cannot makeseparate databases. The organization should create a table with the
same name as the IAM user name and use the ARN of DynamoDB as part of the group policy.
The sample policy is shown below:
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [{
169
"Effect": "Allow",
"Action": ["dynamodb:*"],
"Resource": "arn:aws:dynamodb:region:account-number-without-hyphens:table/
${aws:username}" }
]
}
QUESTION NO: 276
A user has configured an HTTPS listener on an ELB. The user has not configured any security
policy which can help to negotiate SSL between the client and ELB. What will ELB do in this
scenario?
A. By default ELB will select the first version of the security policy
B. By default ELB will select the latest version of the policy
C. ELB creation will fail without a security policy
D. It is not required to have a security policy since SSL is already installed
Answer: B
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which
is known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and
the loadbalancer. If the user has created an HTTPS/SSL listener without associating any security
policy, Elastic Load Balancing will, bydefault, associate the latest version of the
ELBSecurityPolicyYYYY-MM with the load balancer.
QUESTION NO: 277
A user is creating a Cloudformation stack. Which of the below mentioned limitations does not hold
true for Cloudformation?
A. One account by default is limited to 100 templates
B. The user can use 60 parameters and 60 outputs in a single template
C. The template, parameter, output, and resource description fields are limited to 4096 characters
D. One account by default is limited to 20 stacks
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS Cloudformation is an application management tool which provides application modelling,
deployment, configuration, management and related activities. The limitations given below apply
to the Cloudformation template and stack. There are no limits to the number of templates but each
AWS CloudFormation account is limited to a maximum of 20 stacks by default. The Template,
Parameter, Output, and Resource description fields are limited to 4096 characters. The user can
include up to 60 parameters and 60 outputs in a template.
QUESTION NO: 278
A user has two EC2 instances running in two separate regions. The user is running an
internal memory management tool, which captures the data and sends it to CloudWatch in US East,
using a CLI with the same namespace and metric. Which of the below mentioned options is true with
respect to the above statement?
A. The setup will not work as CloudWatch cannot receive data across regions
B. CloudWatch will receive and aggregate the data based on the namespace and metric
C. CloudWatch will give an error since the data will conflict due to two sources
D. CloudWatch will take the data of the server, which sends the data first
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch does not differentiate the source of a metric when receiving custom data. If
the user is publishing a metric with the same namespace and dimensions from different sources,
CloudWatch will treat them as a single metric. If the data is coming with the same timezone within
a minute, CloudWatch will aggregate the data. It treats these as a single metric, allowing the user
to get the statistics, such as minimum, maximum, average, and the sum of all across all servers.
QUESTION NO: 279
An organization has created a Queue named “modularqueue” with SQS. The organization is not
performing any operations such as SendMessage, ReceiveMessage, DeleteMessage,
GetQueueAttributes, SetQueueAttributes, AddPermission, and RemovePermission on the queue.
What can happen in this scenario?
A. AWS SQS sends notification after 15 days for inactivity on queue
B. AWS SQS can delete queue after 30 days without notification
C. AWS SQS marks queue inactive after 30 days
D. AWS SQS notifies the user after 2 weeks and deletes the queue after 3 weeks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon SQS can delete a queue without notification if one of the following actions hasn't
been performed on it for 30 consecutive days: SendMessage, ReceiveMessage, DeleteMessage,
GetQueueAttributes, SetQueueAttributes, AddPermission, and RemovePermission.
QUESTION NO: 280
An organization has setup Auto Scaling with ELB. Due to some manual error, one of the instances
got rebooted. Thus, it failed the Auto Scaling health check. Auto Scaling has marked it for
replacement. How can the system admin ensure that the instance does not get terminated?
A. Update the Auto Scaling group to ignore the instance reboot event
B. It is not possible to change the status once it is marked for replacement
C. Manually add that instance to the Auto Scaling group after reboot to avoid replacement
D. Change the health of the instance to healthy using the Auto Scaling commands
Answer: D
Explanation:
After an instance has been marked unhealthy by Auto Scaling, as a result of an Amazon EC2 or
ELB health check, it is almost immediately scheduled for replacement as it will never
automatically recover its health. If the user knows that the instance is healthy then he can
manually call the SetInstanceHealth action (or the as-setinstance- health command from CLI. to
set the instance's health status back to healthy. Auto Scaling will throw an error if the instance is
already terminating or else it will mark it healthy.
QUESTION NO: 281 A system admin wants to add more zones to the existing ELB. The system admin wants to perform this activity from CLI. Which of the below mentioned command helps the system admin to add new zones to the existing ELB?
A. elb-enable-zones-for-lb
B. elb-add-zones-for-lb
C. It is not possible to add more zones to the existing ELB
D. elb-configure-zones-for-lb
Answer: A
Explanation:
The user has created an Elastic Load Balancer with the availability zone and wants to add more
zones to the existing ELB. The user can do so in two ways:
From the console or CLI, add new zones to ELB;
QUESTION NO: 282
An organization is planning to create a user with IAM. They are trying to understand the limitations
of IAM so that they can plan accordingly. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true
with respect to the limitations of IAM?
A. One IAM user can be a part of a maximum of 5 groups
B. The organization can create 100 groups per AWS account
C. One AWS account can have a maximum of 5000 IAM users
D. One AWS account can have 250 roles
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage
users and user permissions for various AWS services. The default maximums for each of the IAM
entities is given below:
Groups per AWS account: 100
Users per AWS account: 5000
Roles per AWS account: 250
Number of groups per user: 10 (that is, one user can be part of these many groups.
QUESTION NO: 283
A user is planning to scale up an application by 8 AM and scale down by 7 PM daily using
Auto Scaling. What should the user do in this case?
A. Setup the scaling policy to scale up and down based on the CloudWatch alarms
B. The user should increase the desired capacity at 8 AM and decrease it by 7 PM manually
C. The user should setup a batch process which launches the EC2 instance at a specific time
D. Setup scheduled actions to scale up or down at a specific time
Answer: A
Explanation:
Auto Scaling based on a schedule allows the user to scale the application in response to
predictable load changes. To configure the Auto Scaling group to scale based on a schedule,
the user needs to create scheduled actions. A scheduled action tells Auto Scaling to perform
a scaling action at a certain time in the future.
QUESTION NO: 284
A user has created a VPC with two subnets: one public and one private. The user is planning to
run the patch update for the instances in the private subnet. How can the instances in the private
subnet connect to theinternet?
A. Use the internet gateway with a private IP
B. Allow outbound traffic in the security group for port 80 to allow internet updates
C. The private subnet can never connect to the internet
D. Use NAT with an elastic IP
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user
can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has created two
subnets (one private and one public., he would need a Network Address Translation (NAT.
instance with the elastic IP address. This enables the instances in the private subnet to send
requests to the internet (for example, to perform software updates..
QUESTION NO: 285
A user has configured an EC2 instance in the US-East-1a zone. The user has enabled detailed
monitoring of the instance. The user is trying to get the data from CloudWatch using a CLI. Which
of the below mentioned CloudWatch endpoint URLs should the user use?
A. monitoring.us-east-1.amazonaws.com
B. monitoring.us-east-1-a.amazonaws.com
C. monitoring.us-east-1a.amazonaws.com
D. cloudwatch.us-east-1a.amazonaws.com
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CloudWatch resources are always region specific and they will have the end point as region
specific. If the user is trying to access the metric in the US-East-1 region, the endpoint URL will be:
monitoring.us-east- 1.amazonaws.com
QUESTION NO: 286
A user has configured ELB with Auto Scaling. The user suspended the Auto Scaling AddToLoadBalancer
(which adds instances to the load balancer. process for a while. What will happen to the instances
launched during the suspension period?
A. The instances will not be registered with ELB and the user has to manually register when
the process is resumed
B. The instances will be registered with ELB only once the process has resumed
C. Auto Scaling will not launch the instance during this period due to process suspension
D. It is not possible to suspend only the AddToLoadBalancer process
Answer: A
Explanation:
Auto Scaling performs various processes, such as Launch, Terminate, add to Load Balancer etc.
The user can also suspend the individual process. The AddToLoadBalancer process type adds
instances to the load balancer when the instances are launched. If this process is suspended,
Auto Scaling will launch the instances but will not add them to the load balancer. When the user
resumes this process, Auto Scaling will resume adding new instances launched after resumption
to the load balancer. However, it will not add running instances that were launched while the
process was suspended; those instances must be added manually.
QUESTION NO: 287
A sys admin has enabled a log on ELB. Which of the below mentioned activities are not
captured by the log?
A. Response processing time
B. Front end processing time
C. Backend processing time
D. Request processing time
Answer: B
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing access logs capture detailed information for all the requests made to the
load balancer. Each request will have details, such as client IP, request path, ELB IP, time, and
latencies. The time will have information, such as Request Processing time, Backend
Processing time and Response Processing time.
QUESTION NO: 288
A user has moved an object to Glacier using the life cycle rules. The user requests to restore the
archive after 6 months. When the restore request is completed the user accesses that archive.
Which of the below mentioned statements is not true in this condition?
A. The archive will be available as an object for the duration specified by the user during
the restoration request
B. The restored object’s storage class will be RRS
C. The user can modify the restoration period only by issuing a new restore request with
the updated period
D. The user needs to pay storage for both RRS (restored) and Glacier (Archive) Rates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS Glacier is an archival service offered by AWS. AWS S3 provides lifecycle rules to archive
and restore objects from S3 to Glacier. Once the object is archived their storage class will change
to Glacier. If the user sends a request for restore, the storage class will still be Glacier for the
restored object. The user will be paying for both the archived copy as well as for the restored
object. The object is available only for the duration specified in the restore request and if the user
wants to modify that period, he has to raise another restore request with the updated duration.
QUESTION NO: 289
A user is running a batch process on EBS backed EC2 instances. The batch process starts a few
instances to process hadoop Map reduce jobs which can run between 50 – 600 minutes or
sometimes for more time. The user wants to configure that the instance gets terminated only
when the process is completed. How can the user configure this with CloudWatch?
A. Setup the CloudWatch action to terminate the instance when the CPU utilization is less
than 5%
B. Setup the CloudWatch with Auto Scaling to terminate all the instances
C. Setup a job which terminates all instances after 600 minutes
D. It is not possible to terminate instances automatically
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarm watches a single metric over a time period that the user specifies
and performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold
over a number of time periods. The user can setup an action which terminates the instances
when their CPU utilization is below a certain threshold for a certain period of time. The EC2
action can either terminate or stop the instance as part of the EC2 action.
QUESTION NO: 290
A user has enabled versioning on an S3 bucket. The user is using server side encryption for
data at rest. If the user is supplying his own keys for encryption (SSE-C., what is recommended
to the user for the purpose of security?
A. The user should not use his own security key as it is not secure
B. Configure S3 to rotate the user’s encryption key at regular intervals
C. Configure S3 to store the user’s keys securely with SSL
D. Keep rotating the encryption key manually at the client side
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS S3 supports client side or server side encryption to encrypt all data at Rest. The server side
encryption can either have the S3 supplied AES-256 encryption key or the user can send the key
along with each API call to supply his own encryption key (SSE-C.. Since S3 does not store the
encryption keys in SSE-C, it is recommended that the user should manage keys securely and
keep rotating them regularly at the client side version.
QUESTION NO: 291
A user runs the command “dd if=/dev/xvdf of=/dev/null bs=1M” on an EBS volume created from a
snapshot and attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below mentioned activities is the user
performing with the step given above?
A. Pre warming the EBS volume
B. Initiating the device to mount on the EBS volume
C. Formatting the volume
D. Copying the data from a snapshot to the device
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user creates an EBS volume and is trying to access it for the first time it will encounter
reduced IOPS due to wiping or initiating of the block storage. To avoid this as well as achieve the
best performance it is required to pre warm the EBS volume. For a volume created from a
snapshot and attached with a Linux OS, the “dd” command pre warms the existing data on EBS
and any restored snapshots of volumes that have been previously fully pre warmed. This
command maintains incremental snapshots; however, because this operation is read-only, it does
not pre warm unused space that has never been written to on the original volume. In the
command “dd if=/dev/xvdf of=/dev/null bs=1M” , the parameter “if=input file” should be set to the
drive that the user wishes to warm. The “of=output file” parameter should be set to the Linux null
virtual device, /dev/null. The “bs” parameter sets the block size of the read operation; for optimal
performance, this should be set to 1 MB.
QUESTION NO: 292
A user has launched an EC2 Windows instance from an instance store backed AMI. The user
wants to convert the AMI to an EBS backed AMI. How can the user convert it?
A. Attach an EBS volume to the instance and unbundle all the AMI bundled data inside the EBS
B. A Windows based instance store backed AMI cannot be converted to an EBS backed AMI
C. It is not possible to convert an instance store backed AMI to an EBS backed AMI
D. Attach an EBS volume and use the copy command to copy all the ephermal content to the EBS
Volume
Answer: B
Explanation:
Generally when a user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI, it can
be converted to an EBS backed AMI provided the user has attached the EBS volume to the
instance and unbundles the AMI data to it. However, if the instance is a Windows instance, AWS
does not allow this. In this case, since the instance is a Windows instance, the user cannot
convert it to an EBS backed AMI.
QUESTION NO: 293
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC Wizard. The VPC has
CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. Which of the below mentioned entries
are required in the main route table to allow the instances in VPC to communicate with each other?
A. Destination : 20.0.0.0/24 and Target : VPC
B. Destination : 20.0.0.0/16 and Target : ALL
C. Destination : 20.0.0.0/0 and Target : ALL
D. Destination : 20.0.0.0/16 and Target : Local
Answer: A
Explanation:
A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has
created a public private subnet, the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic
directly from the Internet, whereas the instances in the private subnet cannot. If these subnets are
created with Wizard, AWS will create two route tables and attach to the subnets. The main route
table will have the entry “Destination: 20.0.0.0/24 and Target:
Local”, which allows all instances in the VPC to communicate with each other.
QUESTION NO: 294
A sysadmin has created the below mentioned policy on an S3 bucket named cloudacademy. The
bucket has both AWS.jpg and index.html objects. What does this policy define?
"Statement": [{
"Sid": "Stmt1388811069831",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Principal": { "AWS": "*"},
"Action": [ "s3:GetObjectAcl", "s3:ListBucket", "s3:GetObject"],
"Resource": [ "arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy/*.jpg]
}]
A. It will make all the objects as well as the bucket public
B. It will throw an error for the wrong action and does not allow to save the policy
C. It will make the AWS.jpg object as public
D. It will make the AWS.jpg as well as the cloudacademy bucket as public
Answer: B
Explanation:
A sysadmin can grant permission to the S3 objects or the buckets to any user or make objects
public using the bucket policy and user policy. Both use the JSON-based access policy
language. Generally if user is defining the ACL on the bucket, the objects in the bucket do not
inherit it and vice a versa. The bucket policy can be defined at the bucket level which allows the
objects as well as the bucket to be public with a single policy applied to that bucket. In the below
policy the action says “S3:ListBucket” for effect Allow and when there is no bucket name
mentioned as a part of the resource, it will throw an error and not save the policy.
"Statement": [{
"Sid": "Stmt1388811069831",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Principal": { "AWS": "*"},
"Action": [ "s3:GetObjectAcl", "s3:ListBucket", "s3:GetObject"],
"Resource": [ "arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy/*.jpg]
}]
QUESTION NO: 295
A user has launched an EC2 instance and deployed a production application in it. The user wants
to prohibit any mistakes from the production team to avoid accidental termination. How can the
user achieve this?
A. The user can the set DisableApiTermination attribute to avoid accidental termination
B. It is not possible to avoid accidental termination
C. The user can set the Deletion termination flag to avoid accidental termination
D. The user can set the InstanceInitiatedShutdownBehavior flag to avoid accidental termination
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is always possible that someone can terminate an EC2 instance using the Amazon EC2
console, command line interface or API by mistake. If the admin wants to prevent the instance
from being accidentally terminated, he can enable termination protection for that instance. The
DisableApiTermination attribute controls whether the instance can be terminated using the
console, CLI or API. By default, termination protection is disabled for an EC2 instance. When it
is set it will not allow the user to terminate the instance from CLI, API or the console.
QUESTION NO: 296
A user has created a launch configuration for Auto Scaling where CloudWatch detailed monitoring
is disabled. The user wants to now enable detailed monitoring. How can the user achieve this?
A. Update the Launch config with CLI to set InstanceMonitoringDisabled = false
B. The user should change the Auto Scaling group from the AWS console to enable
detailed monitoring
C. Update the Launch config with CLI to set InstanceMonitoring.Enabled = true
D. Create a new Launch Config with detail monitoring enabled and update the Auto Scaling group
Answer: D
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. To enable detailed instance
monitoring for a new Auto Scaling group, the user does not need to take any extra steps. When
the user creates the AutoScaling launch config as the first step for creating an Auto Scaling
group, each launch configuration contains a flag named InstanceMonitoring.Enabled. The default
value of this flag is true. When the user has created a launch configuration with
InstanceMonitoring.Enabled = false it will involve multiple steps to enable detail monitoring. The
steps are:
Create a new Launch config with detailed monitoring enabled
Update the Auto Scaling group with a new launch config
Enable detail monitoring on each EC2 instance
QUESTION NO: 297
A user is trying to pre-warm a blank EBS volume attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below
mentioned steps should be performed by the user?
A. There is no need to pre-warm an EBS volume
B. Contact AWS support to pre-warm
C. Unmount the volume before pre-warming
D. Format the device
Answer: C
Explanation:
When the user creates a new EBS volume or restores a volume from the snapshot, the backend storage
blocks are immediately allocated to the user EBS. However, the first time when the user is trying
to access a block of the storage, it is recommended to either be wiped from the new volumes or
instantiated from the snapshot (for restored volumes. before the user can access the block. This
preliminary action takes time and can cause a 5 to 50 percent loss of IOPS for the volume when
the block is accessed for the first time. To avoid this it is required to pre warm the volume.
Prewarming an EBS volume on a Linux instance requires that the user should unmount the blank
device first and then write all the blocks on the device using a command, such as “dd”.
QUESTION NO: 298
A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI. The user has attached
an additional instance store volume to the instance. The user wants to create an AMI from the
running instance. Will the AMI have the additional instance store volume data?
A. Yes, the block device mapping will have information about the additional instance store volume
B. No, since the instance store backed AMI can have only the root volume bundled
C. It is not possible to attach an additional instance store volume to the existing instance
store backed AMI instance
D. No, since this is ephermal storage it will not be a part of the AMI
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI and added an
instance store volume to the instance in addition to the root device volume, the block device
mapping for the new AMI contains the information for these volumes as well. In addition, the
block device mappings for the instances those are launched from the new AMI will automatically
contain information for these volumes.
QUESTION NO: 299
A user has created an EBS volume of 10 GB and attached it to a running instance. The user is
trying to access EBS for first time. Which of the below mentioned options is the correct statement
with respect to a first time EBS access?
A. The volume will show a size of 8 GB
B. The volume will show a loss of the IOPS performance the first time
C. The volume will be blank
D. If the EBS is mounted it will ask the user to create a file system
Answer: B
Explanation:
A user can create an EBS volume either from a snapshot or as a blank volume. If the volume is
from a snapshot it will not be blank. The volume shows the right size only as long as it is
mounted. This shows that the file system is created. When the user is accessing the volume the
AWS EBS will wipe out the block storage or instantiate from the snapshot. Thus, the volume will
show a loss of IOPS. It is recommended that the user should pre warm the EBS before use to
achieve better IO.
QUESTION NO: 300
A user has enabled termination protection on an EC2 instance. The user has also set
Instance initiated shutdown behaviour to terminate. When the user shuts down the instance
from the OS, what will happen?
A. The OS will shutdown but the instance will not be terminated due to protection
B. It will terminate the instance
C. It will not allow the user to shutdown the instance from the OS
D. It is not possible to set the termination protection when an Instance initiated shutdown is
set to Terminate
Answer: B
Explanation:
It is always possible that someone can terminate an EC2 instance using the Amazon EC2
console, command line interface or API by mistake. If the admin wants to prevent the instance
from being accidentally terminated, he can enable termination protection for that instance. The
user can also setup shutdown behaviour for an EBS backed instance to guide the instance on
what should be done when he initiates shutdown from the OS using Instance initiated shutdown
behaviour. If the instance initiated behaviour is set to terminate and the user shuts off the OS
even though termination protection is enabled, it will still terminate the instance.
QUESTION NO: 301
A user has deployed an application on an EBS backed EC2 instance. For a better performance of
application, it requires dedicated EC2 to EBS traffic. How can the user achieve this?
A. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS dedicated with PIOPS EBS
B. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS enhanced with PIOPS EBS
C. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS dedicated with PIOPS EBS
D. Launch the EC2 instance as EBS optimized with PIOPS EBS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Any application which has performance sensitive workloads and requires minimal variability with
dedicated EC2 to EBS traffic should use provisioned IOPS EBS volumes, which are attached to
an EBS-optimized EC2 instance or it should use an instance with 10 Gigabit network connectivity.
Launching an instance that is EBSoptimized provides the user with a dedicated connection
between the EC2 instance and the EBS volume.
QUESTION NO: 302
A user has launched a Windows based EC2 instance. However, the instance has some issues
and the user wants to check the log. When the user checks the Instance console output from the
AWS console, what will it display?
A. All the event logs since instance boot
B. The last 10 system event log error
C. The Windows instance does not support the console output
D. The last three system events’ log errors
Answer: D
Explanation:
The AWS EC2 console provides a useful tool called Console output for problem diagnosis. It is
useful to find out any kernel issues, termination reasons or service configuration issues. For a
Windows instance it lists the last three system event log errors. For Linux it displays the exact
console output.
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